Answer:
Hydrophobic interaction.
Explanation:
On the basis of the polarity and the dissolution of water, the molecules can be classified into the hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules. The hydrophobic molecules can easily dissolve in the non polar solvents.
The hydrophobic interaction is important that exist between the non polar molecules. The hydrophobic interaction plays an important role in the biological system as the lipids of the cell membrane are assisted together with the hydrophobic interaction. The hydrocarbon tail is non polar molecules that contains hydrophobic interaction within it.
Thus, the correct answer is hydrophobic interaction.
Gabe's wife wakes him from his peaceful slumber to tell him she heard a noise. As he slowly gets up to investigate, his heart begins to race, his mouth is dry, and he begins to sweat. Clearly his _____ nervous system has been activated.
Answer: Clearly his SYMPATHETIC nervous system has been activated.
Explanation:
The effects of the sympathetic nervous system dominate in times of EMERGENCY or STRESS. And its effects include:
- dilation of pupils to help Gabe see sharply as he investigate
- inhibition of saliva secretion as his mouth turns dry
- acceleration of heartbeat due to fear
- stimulation of sweat glands to produce sweat.
All these show clearly that Gabe's SYMPATHETIC nervous system has been activated.
Answer:
sympathetic nervous system has been activated
This type of research is descriptive and investigates the why and how of decision making, not just what, where, when. These methods produce information only on the particular cases studied, and any more general conclusions are only propositions (informed assertions).
a. quantitative
b. ethnographic
c. microgenic
d. qualitative
Answer:
The correct answer is - option D.
Explanation:
Qualitative research is research or scientific method which is involved in various subject matters and fields, of collecting observation and nonnumeric data. This is the research normally is descriptive, exploratory and other qualitative methods to answer the question.
It is an investigation that is not just addressed what and where but also to the questions like how, and why. This is the reason these are used in small samples rather than large samples and also used on species cases to get information.
Thus, the correct answer is - option D.
Match these items.
1 . a dinoflagellate responsible for red tide off the Florida coast
2 . a fungi known for the production of an antibiotic
3 . a protozoan known to cause malaria
4 . the water mold that causes late blight in potatoes
5 . the bacteria responsible for Lyme Disease 6 . Penicillium chrysogenum common mushrooms found in grocery stores
a. Karenia brevis
b. Borrelia burgdorferi
c. Phytophthera infestans
d. Plasmodium vivax
e. Agaricus bisporis
Answer:
1 . a dinoflagellate responsible for red tide off the Florida coast -Karenia brevis
2 . a fungi known for the production of an antibiotic - Penicillium chrysogenum
3 . a protozoan known to cause malaria -Plasmodium vivax
4 . the water mold that causes late blight in potatoes -Phytophthera infestans
5 . the bacteria responsible for Lyme Disease Borrelia burgdorferi
6 . common mushrooms found in grocery stores Agaricus bisporus
Cloning is the creation of an organism that is an exact genetic copy of another. There are a couple of ways to make an exact genetic copy of an organism: artificial embryo twinning and somatic cell nuclear transfer. Artificial embryo twinning is the relatively low-tech version of cloning and it mimics the natural process of creating identical twins. Somatic cell nuclear transfer, (SCNT) uses a different approach than artificial embryo twinning, but it produces the same result: an exact clone, or genetic copy, of an individual. What are the steps in SCNT? Order these steps so you can complete your own cloning project. A. Stimulate cell division B. Deliver baby C. Remove and discard the nucleus from the egg cell D. Isolate donor cells from egg donor and germ cell donor E. Transfer the somatic cell nucleus into the egg cell F. Implant embryo into a surrogate mother
Answer: The correct order is
D. Isolate donor cells from egg donor and germ cell donor
C. Remove and discard the nucleus from the egg cell
E. Transfer the somatic cell nucleus into the egg cell
A. Stimulate cell division
F. Implant embryo into a surrogate mother
B. Deliver baby
Explanation: SCNT (somatic cell nuclear transfer) is a technique used to transfer the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell to the cytoplasm of an enucleated egg (an egg whose nucleus has been removed).
The steps involved in SCNT are:
1) Preparation and extraction of the somatic cell: This step involves preparation and extraction of somatic (body) cell from any part of the body but preferably the skin.
2). Enucleation: This step involves the removal of the egg's nucleus.
3). Nuclear transfer: This involves the transfer of the somatic cell nucleus into the enucleated egg.
4). Egg incubation: It involves the incubation of the egg in a medium that stimulates cell division and conducive for embryonic development. Once the somatic cell nucleus is transfer into the egg, the cytoplasmic factors of the egg reprogramme somatic cell nucleus to become a nucleus of a zygote (fertilized egg). The zygote then develops to the blastocyst stage.
5). Embryogenesis: This involves the implantation of the blastocyst into the surrogate mother who carries the developing embryo.
6). The surrogate mother carries the developing embryo like a normal pregnancy and delivers the baby when it is due.
Which function is NOT a property of life?
1. Populations of organisms rarely change over time.
2. Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization.
3. Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities.
4. Organisms reproduce their own kind.
Answer: The function which is not a property of life is that the populations of organisms rarely change over time because evolution occurs.
Explanation:
Evolution is defined as the changes in the charachteristics of organisms of species over generations which relies on the process of natural selection.
Over hundred of years each specie and each organism of that specie has evolved because it has adapted new chnages according to the environmnetal chnages that had occured and their need of survival.
Evolution is basically the changes in the heritable genetic material.
Hence, this is not in accordance with the definition of life that populations dont change over time.
The statement 'populations of organisms rarely change over time' does not represent a property of life. Populations often change over time, driven by evolution.
Explanation:The function that does not represent a property of life from the provided list would be "Populations of organisms rarely change over time." In truth, populations of organisms often change over time due to evolution, which is driven by natural selection and genetic drift. This is a fundamental concept in biology, contrary to the permanence stated in the function. On the other hand, functions like exhibiting complex but ordered organization, using energy for life's activities, and reproducing one's own kind are all accurately described properties of life.
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A particular antibiotic kills 99% of a bacterial population. What will be the result of the continued application of this antibiotic?
Answer:
over time the antibiotic will become less effective against bacteria.
Explanation:
A new antibiotic can kill a greater percentage of bacteria because very less bacteria is resistant towards that antibiotic but when that antibiotic is used continuously for a long time then some bacteria develop resistance against that antibiotic and due to natural selection these bacteria are selected.
So if a particular antibiotic kills 99% of a bacterial population so the continuous use of this antibiotic will allow some bacteria to evolve resistance against it. Then these resistant bacteria will be selected by natural selection and over time the antibiotic will become less effective against bacteria.
Continued application of antibiotics leads to survival and proliferation of resistant forms of bacteria due to the principle of natural selection. Misuse of antibiotics, especially in livestock feed, accelerates this process. It contributes to a medical crisis, making it challenging for scientists to generate an effective and approved drug.
Explanation:The continued application of an antibiotic that kills 99% of a bacterial population would lead to the survival of resistant forms of bacteria. The antibiotic massacres most harmful bacteria, however, resistant forms persist and multiply, causing an increase in their proportion. This phenomenon is known as natural selection.
Overuse and misuse of antibiotics, particularly in livestock, accelerates this process. In the United States, for example, antibiotics constitute 70% of the total amount given to animals, often in low doses which intensify the chances of resistance development. These resistant bacteria can subsequently be transferred to humans.
In conclusion, the upshot is a medical crisis where a simple bacterial infection could pose grave threats to human health. Development of new antibiotics is in progress, but it takes years of research and substantial financial investment. Consequently, judicious use of antibiotics is crucial to prevent rapid development of antibiotic resistance.
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Darwin noted that populations produce more offspring than will survive. Why is this fact a central component of the theory of natural selection?
Answer:
Darwin is known as the father of evolution and explains the theory of the natural selection. He explains the relationship between the evolution and the natural selection.
According to Darwin the population with more reproductive power has high chance of fitness and adapt in the environment. This is because the large number of individual in the population shows large variation with the variation in the fitness when subjected to the process of natural selection.
The cellular process of creating two new DNA molecules from one original copy is called replication. Which statement is the BEST description of this process?
A) DNA opens up and RNA copies it.B) DNA opens up and completely unwinds to make two new molecules.C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand.D) RNA opens up the DNA and uses each strand as a template for a new strand.
Answer:
C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand.
Explanation:
DNA molecule is present in the form of a double helix. The hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strands are broken down by the enzyme helicase. This enzyme uses the energy of the hydrolysis of ATP to perform the denaturation of DNA. Breaking of hydrogen bonds separates the two DNA strands from each other. Now, each of the DNA strands serves as a template which means that its nucleotide sequence would specify the nucleotide sequence of the newly formed strand. The process is catalyzed by the enzyme DNA polymerase in a primer dependent manner.
DNA replication is a process where the DNA molecule splits open and each strand serves as a template for a new strand, producing two new molecules. This mechanism ensures that each new cell gets an exact copy of the DNA.
Explanation:The cellular process of creating two new DNA molecules from one original copy, known as DNA replication, is best described by option C) DNA opens up and each strand is used as a template for a new strand. In this process, the DNA strand splits open, forming a replication fork. Then, enzymes like DNA polymerase add nucleotides to the exposed strands following their base pairing rules, thereby creating two new identical molecules - one for each half of the fork. This ensures that each new cell has an exact copy of the DNA.
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Five-year-old Theresa is Christmas shopping with her mother and siblings. She looks around and realizes her mother is nowhere to be found. Theresa's _____ nervous system activates the fight-or-flight response. Theresa's mother finally comes around the corner, and Theresa is filled with relief, the result of the activation of the _____ part of her nervous system.
Answer:
1. Sympathetic
2. Parasympathetic
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is activated when the person experiences any stress conditions. This nervous system stimulates the release of stress hormones from the adrenal gland and generates flight or fight response. There are an increased heart rate and breathing rate to increase the oxygen supply to skeletal muscles.
Once the person comes out of the stress conditions, the parasympathetic nervous system is activated which slows down the physiological responses generated by the sympathetic system. The activated parasympathetic nervous system stimulates the digestion and absorption of nutrients.
Final answer:
Theresa's sympathetic nervous system activates the fight-or-flight response. Theresa's mother finally comes around the corner, and Theresa is filled with relief, the result of the activation of the parasympathetic part of her nervous system.
Explanation:
When five-year-old Theresa realizes that her mother is nowhere to be found, her sympathetic nervous system activates the fight-or-flight response. This is an involuntary reaction that prepares the body to respond to perceived dangers by allowing access to energy reserves and heightening sensory capacity so one might either fight off a threat or run away to safety. When Theresa sees her mother and feels relief, it is the parasympathetic part of her autonomic nervous system that becomes activated to calm her down and return her body to a state of rest.
The idea that a specific function, like color vision, occurs in a specific region of the brain is called _____.
Answer:
Cortical localization
Explanation:
The theory of localization explains that certain functions are associated with specific areas of brain. According to theory of cortical localization of function different cerebral cortical territories perform different functions, such as vision and language. Such as any damage to Broca's area will render a person to speak although he is able to understand the language. In the same way any damage to ventral occipital lobe/cortical region will cause a problem in color vision.
Hoping this might be helpful.
There is more than one way people can become parents. What do a biological parent, adoptive parent, and foster parent have in common?
Answer:
Parenting responsibility
Explanation:
The above people all have the legal right to the parenting of their ward.
From the hazards listed below, determine which could require foot protection. (Select all that apply). A)Falling objects B)Loose cords C)Sharps D)Slippery areas E)Hazardous f)liquids G) Low-hanging beams
Falling objects, sharps, and hazardous liquids are hazards that may require foot protection to prevent possible injuries. It's important to wear suitable foot protection while dealing with these hazards.
Explanation:The hazards that could require foot protection include
A) Falling objects,
C) Sharps, and
E) Hazardous liquids.
Falling objects can cause foot injuries if they land on one's feet. Similarly, sharps such as needles, glass shards, or metal pieces can cause foot harm if stepped on. Hazardous liquids might lead to chemical burns, infections or other injuries if they come into contact with skin. Therefore, wearing appropriate foot protection such as steel-toed boots or safety shoes when dealing with these hazards is essential to avoid injuries.
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Foot protection is required for a) falling objects, c) sharps, and e) hazardous liquids. These hazards pose risks such as physical injury from impact, punctures, and chemical burns or other skin damage, thus necessitating the use of protective footwear.
From the list of hazards provided, the ones that could require foot protection include:
a) Falling objects: These pose a risk of injury as they could fall on a person's feet.c) Sharps: Sharps such as needles or metal scraps on the floor could puncture footwear and injure the feet.e) Hazardous liquids: Corrosive or toxic liquids can damage skin on contact, so protective footwear is necessary to prevent foot injuries.To use appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), workers must be aware of hazards such as falling objects, sharps, and hazardous liquids to maintain a safe working environment.
A vegetative cell is _______.
a. a metabolically active cell
b. a non-diving bacterial cell
c. a bacterial cell with
d. an impervious coating
e. a frozen cell
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A vegetative cell is similar to the somatic cells in our body. They are cells of a bacterium or other organisms that actively divide instead of forming reproductive structures like spores. Vegetative cell is any other cell asides the reproductive cells in an organism. Unlike reproductive cells (spores) in some organisms which helps such organism withstand adverse condition in order to ensure germination, vegetative cells are metabolically active and hence keeps undergoing division.
When conditions are unfavorable e.g nutrient deficiency, water inavailability etc. a bacterium cell forms an endospore used to endure that period, once things go back to normal, the endospore germinates into a viable vegetative cell that can continue growth and cell division.
A vegetative cell is a metabolically active cell (option A). It is often used to describe the active growth phase in bacteria and plants.
Explanation:A vegetative cell is a metabolically active cell that is engaged in maintaining life processes. It is an actively growing cell in a bacterial population. It is in contrast to spore forms or resting stages, which are not actively metabolizing or dividing. This usually involves activities such as growth, nutrition intake, and reproduction. A vegetative cell is a non-dividing cell and doesn't have an impervious coating.
The term is often used in the context of bacteria and plants, reflecting the active growth phase of these organisms.
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A lipopolysaccharide molecule that is released from the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria cell walls and causes the symptoms of the bacterial infection is called ________.
Answer:
It is called an Endotoxin
Explanation:
Lipopolysaccharide are large molecules found in the outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria and it of lipids and polysaccharide. Apart from forming part of the structure of the bacteria, it protects the bacteria from chemical attacks.
Unlike exotoxins are substances such as proteins, that are secreted by the bacteria and are released outside hence causing an infection.
Endotoxins are substances that are part of the cell example is the lipopolysaccharide.dotoxins E /
Final answer:
The lipopolysaccharide molecule released from gram-negative bacteria that causes infection symptoms is called endotoxin. It includes a toxic component known as lipid A, which can lead to inflammatory responses and, if in high concentrations, endotoxic shock.
Explanation:
A lipopolysaccharide molecule that is released from the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria cell walls and causes the symptoms of the bacterial infection is called endotoxin. The lipopolysaccharide (LPS), specifically the lipid A component, is the toxic part of the molecule. During both normal replication and cell death, fragments of LPS are released, which can trigger a host's immune response. If the concentration of endotoxin is low, it may benefit the host by providing defense against infection. However, high levels of endotoxin can lead to excessive inflammation, potentially resulting in a severe drop in blood pressure, multi-organ failure, and even death, a condition known as endotoxic shock.
A client reports a general deterioration in his health over the past several weeks. Which assessment and laboratory findings would be most closely associated with acute leukemia?
Answer: On clinical examintaion of the client, general signs of anemia, pallor and cardiac flow mrumur can be seen. Lab daignosis of acute leukemia can be done by bone marrow aspiration and biopsy.
Explanation:
Acute leukemia is a malignant neoplastic condition arising from the myeloid line or the lymphoid line of cell.
All are typically childhood malingancy but acute leukemia is primarily found more in adults.
A client with acute leukemia me present with fevers, chills, fatigue weakness, pain, bleeding from the gums, pallor nd frequent infections.
Laboratory diagnosis of acute leukemia can be done by bone marrow aspiration, biopsy, flow cytometry and blood tests.
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's:______.a. antibodies. b. iron-transport proteins. c. white blood cells. d. red blood cells. e. receptors.
Answer:
The correct answer is iron-transport proteins
Explanation:
Siderophores are proteins produced by bacteria, and compete with the host's iron-transport proteins. They aim to bind and "hijack" the host's cell iron molecules for their own pathogenic cell processes
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with a host's iron-transport proteins. They chelate iron and transport it back to the bacterial cell, outcompeting host cells for this essential nutrient. This falls under microbial pathogenesis and is a strategy bacteria use to cause disease.
Explanation:Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with a host's iron-transport proteins. These bacterial proteins have high affinity for iron, which they chelate and transport back to the bacterial cell. Iron is a vital nutrient for many biological processes including DNA replication and enzymatic activities. Through this mechanism, bacteria can outcompete host cells for this essential resource.
This question comes under the topic of microbial pathogenesis, where organisms such as bacteria adopt various strategies to cause disease in the host. These strategies often involve evasion or subversion of the host's immune system, acquisition of nutrients from the host, and so on. In this specific context, siderophores aren't directly interacting with antibodies, white blood cells, red blood cells, or receptors of the host. Instead, they are usurping the host's iron supply, thereby starving the host cells of this essential nutrient.
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A biologist spent many years researching the rate of evolutionary change in the finch populations of a group of islands. It was determined that the average beak size (both length and mass) of finches in a certain population increased dramatically during an intense drought between 1981 and 1987. During the drought, there was a reduction in the number of plants producing thin-walled seeds.Which of the following procedures was most likely followed to determine the change in beak size?1. A few finches were trapped in 1981 and again in 1987, and their beak sizes were compared.2. The beak size in fifteen finches was measured in 1987, and the beak size in the original finches was determined by estimation.3. The beak size in a large number of finches was measured every year from 1981 to 1987.4. Finches were captured and bred in 1981, and the beak size of the offspring was measured.
Answer: 4. The beak size in a large number of finches was measured every year from 1981 to 1987
Explanation:
The answer in a way, is in the first sentence of the question. The researcher spent many years researching the rate of evolutionary change. This would require a lot of long term examination of a large sample of finches, across many many generations. Evolutionary change takes time and successive generations for natural selection to select for the favoured character trait. Seeing as the researcher was studying not just the occurrence of evolutionary change but it's rate, it is imperative that the a lot of observation and data collection be carried out along a long period of time. This type of study is called a longitudinal study.
To determine the evolution of beak size in finches during a six-year drought, the biologist likely measured beak sizes in a large number of finches every year from 1981 to 1987, providing direct evidence of natural selection and evolutionary change.
Explanation:The procedure most likely followed to determine the change in beak size of finches during an intense drought from 1981 to 1987 is procedure 3: The beak size in a large number of finches was measured every year from 1981 to 1987.
This would provide the most accurate, long-term data about changes in beak size. This constant monitoring of beak size in a substantial population of finches over the course of the years would give the most reliable evidence of any changes in beak size that took place during the drought.
By following evolutionary change over a considerable span of time, the biologist would be able to observe the natural selection in progress as finches with larger beaks, better equipped to deal with the scarcity of thin-walled seeds, would have had a survival advantage and passed their traits onto their offspring.
This is an example of how changes in the environment can lead to an evolutionary response in a population.
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The tiny blue-eyed Mary flower is often one of the first flowers seen in the spring in some regions of the United States. The flower is normally blue, but sometimes a white or pink flower variation is found.
The following data were obtained after several crosses.
Parents F1 F2
Blue × white Blue 196 blue, 63 white
Blue × pink Blue 149 blue, 52 pink
Pink × white Blue 226 blue, 98 white, 77 pink
(A) The appearance of blue in the F1 generation of the pink and white cross demonstrates that flower color is not an inherited trait but is determined by the environment.
(B) Flower color depends on stages of flower development, and young flowers are white, advancing to pink and then blue.
(C) Since the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the pink and white cross do not fit the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios, blue-eyed. Mary must reproduce by vegetative propagation.
(D) Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the
phenotypic expression.
Answer:
Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the phenotypic expression.
Explanation:
The crossing between the two generations of phenotypes creates a cross between the two colors of traits indefinitely.
Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the phenotypic expression.
What are phenotypes?The phenotype is the set of observable characteristics or traits of an organism. The term covers the organism's morphology or physical form and structure, its developmental processes.
Phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits, such as height, eye color and blood type. A person's phenotype is determined by both their genomic makeup (genotype) and environmental factors.
Phenotypic variation in humans is a direct consequence of genetic variation, which acts in conjunction with environmental and behavioral factors to produce phenotypic diversity.
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Dietary glucose is transported into a cell against its concentration gradient with the aid of membrane proteins called Na /glucose _____.
Answer:
Na+/glucose symporters.
Explanation:
Na+/glucose symporters helps in transporting the glucose across the membrane. It is a transmembrane protein and glucose transport is an example of secondary active transport Na ions is required to drive the transport of glucose.
As it is a symporter so this protein transport sodium and glucose in the same direction. ATP energy is used to transport the glucose against the concentration gradient. Na+/glucose symporters are present on epithelial cell with binds to both Na and glucose and transport them simultaneously in the epithelial cell. So the right answer is Na+/glucose symporters.
The missing phrase is 'co-transporters'. Na/glucose co-transporters assist in the transport of glucose into a cell against its concentration gradient through secondary active transport mechanism.
Explanation:The missing word in the statement is co-transporters. Dietary glucose is transported into a cell against its concentration gradient with the aid of membrane proteins called Na/glucose co-transporters. This is a mechanism in which the glucose molecules are able to move into cells from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration, which ordinarily would require energy. However, this process is coupled with the transport of sodium ions down their concentration gradient, providing the necessary energy for the glucose transport. This process is an example of secondary active transport.
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What would be the difference between a gene mutation and a chromosomal mutation?
Answer:
A gene mutation can be described as errors in the nucleotide sequence of a gene due to errors in the DNA replication process or due to any mutagen. On the other hand, a chromosomal mutation can be described as a change in the structure of a DNA or changes in the number of chromosomes.
A gene mutation occurs in a single gene whereas a chromosomal mutation will affect many genes. Hence, gene mutations will be comparatively less lethal than chromosomal mutations.
Example of gene mutation: Sickle cell anemia
Example of chromosomal mutation: Down's Syndrome
A possible explanation for the effectiveness of ________ is that it may reduce depression by triggering the long-term potentiation of nerve cells.
Answer: Antidepressants
Explanation:
The effectiveness of ANTIDEPRESSANTS is best explained by how they stimulate the synapse junctions of several neurons in the body to a top frequency, thus inducing a continuous "feel-good" feeling in the patients administered such drugs.
This ability of antidepressants to sustain this "feel - good" feeling supresses depression and is known as the long-term potentiation of nerve cells.
Round seeds and yellow seed color are dominant to wrinkled seeds and green seed color. Which Punnett square represents the correct way to set up the cross RRYy ´ RrYY?
Answer:
A punnet square can be described as a diagram which depicts the outcomes of the genotype and phenotype of offsprings from a cross between parents. A cross in which a single trait is being considered is a monohybrid cross. A cross in which two traits are being studied is considered as a dihybrid cross.
The punnet square for such a cross can be made as follows:
RY RY rY rY
RY RRYY RRYY RrYY RrYy
RY RRYY RRYY RrYY RrYY
Ry RRYy RRYy RrYy RrYy
Ry RRYy RRYy RrYy RrYy
Answer:
is C
Explanation:
i wouldnt give an answer unless i knew it was the right one
The Swiss Forum for Sport Nutrition has developed a Food Pyramid for Athletes that has been scientifically validated for athletes 20–35 years old, weighing 50–85 kg, who train 5–28 hours per week. Group of answer choices False True
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The food pyramid was constructed based on age and exercise hours because nutritional need and absorption rate of digestive system differ according to age, weight and training hours.
The following experiment is used for the following question. A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers, but caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs. How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and light conditions listed below. Temperature Day Length Springlike Springlike Springlike Summerlike Summerlike springlike Summerlike summerlike In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets). Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed to each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental design tested which of the following hypotheses?
The experiment tests the effects of environment and diet on the physical appearance of caterpillars hatching in different seasons, aiming to see if these factors can induce different phenotype expressions within the same genetic population.
Explanation:The experiment was designed to test two primary hypotheses: one related to the impact of environment (temperature and day length) and second, the impact of diet (oak flowers or leaves) on moth caterpillar appearance. Given the different physical appearances of caterpillars hatching in spring and summer despite coming from the same genetic population, the experiment is likely trying to test whether environment (springlike or summerlike conditions) and diet (oak flowers or leaves) can induce different phenotype expressions.
The uniqueness of the experiment lies in the combination of both factors as it separates the influence of the environment from the diet of the caterpillars. This dissociation will allow the biologist to identify whether it's the combinatorial effects of time/temperature of the year and the type of diet that leads to the distinct appearance of caterpillars or if any one of these factors has a dominant influence.
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Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
a. diphtheria
b. measles
c. tuberculosis
d. botulism
e. the common cold
Answer: d) botulism
Explanation:
Droplet transmission occurs when bacteria or viruses travel on relatively large respiratory droplets that people sneeze, cough, drip, or exhale.
Many common infections can spread by droplet transmission in at least some cases, including: Common cold, Diphtheria, Fifth disease (erythema infectiosum), Influenza, Meningitis, Mycoplasma, Mumps, Pertussis (whooping cough), Plague, Rubella, Strep (strep throat, scarlet fever, pneumonia), Tuberculosis, measles.
Frequent hand cleansing, especially with instant hand sanitizers, can help prevent droplet transmission.
Two populations of a species of squirrel are geographically isolated from each other. Although they have the same population density, one population is significantly larger in number than the other. A new bacterial disease, which is easily spread and extremely virulent, affects both populations at the same time.
Which of the following is the best prediction of how the new disease will affect the two populations?
(A) The two populations will be equally affected, because the ability to trigger an immune response is randomly distributed among all squirrels of that species.
(B) The larger population will be less affected by the disease than will the smaller population, because the mutation rate of the larger population is higher than the mutation rate of the smaller population.
(C) The smaller population will be more affected than will the larger population, because the smaller population has less genetic variation than the larger population has.
(D) The smaller population will be less affected than will the larger population, because the smaller population exhibits more genetic drift than the larger population exhibits.
Answer:
C) The smaller population will be more affected than will the larger population, because the smaller population has less genetic variation than the larger population has.
Explanation:
Genetic variations are present in the natural populations. Some of the genetic traits become adaptive under the changed environmental conditions and allow the individuals carrying them to survive and reproduce. In this way, the genetic variations help to maintain a population.
Therefore, a larger population of a squirrel species with more genetic variations will have less intense impacts of a disturbance/natural calamity and/disease. On the other hand, a smaller population of the same species with a lesser number of squirrels has fewer genetic variations. This population is more likely to be affected in a negative way by a disturbance such as pathogen.
The best prediction is that the smaller population of squirrels will be more affected by the disease due to less genetic variation and greater susceptibility to genetic drift, potentially resulting in a greater loss of alleles and individuals with disease resistance.
Explanation:The question asks how a new bacterial disease will affect two geographically isolated populations of squirrels, one larger and one smaller, but with the same population density. Genetic diversity is a key factor in determining a population's ability to cope with diseases. Since smaller populations tend to have less genetic variation, they are more susceptible to disease. In contrast, larger populations usually maintain a wider array of alleles, providing them with greater resilience to evolving pathogens.
Therefore, the more likely scenario is that the smaller population will be more affected by the disease due to less genetic variation, meaning they have fewer chances for individuals to possess or develop resistance to the disease. This is underlined by the concept of genetic drift, which has a greater impact on smaller populations. If a few individuals with beneficial mutations or immune to the disease exist, in a small population, their loss or failure to breed can have a dramatic impact on the population's overall genetic structure and survival.
Which of the following best describes an opportunity for pharmacists to use diagnosis-based screening to identify people at risk for vaccine-preventable diseases?
Answer:
Vaccination may be defined as the process of the administration of the particular antigen or the chemicals in the form of vaccine against a particular disease. Vaccination helps in the prevention of disease.
The pharmacist almost have proper knowledge about the vaccination and its effects. The screening to identify whether the individual is at risk for vaccine-preventable diseases by performing the medication on the the client that are suffering from diabetes.
In the following tetrahybrid cross AaBbCcDd x AaBbCcDd what proportion of the F2 offspring would be expected to be genotypically AABBCCdd?
A. 3/4
B. 1/2
C. 1/256
D. 81/256
E. 9/256
Answer:
C. 1/256
Explanation:
In the tetrahybrid cross, we have different four groups. Let name them Part (A, B, C & D).
Let Part A be Aa and Aa... If both traits crosses; we have
A a
A AA Aa
a Aa aa
Hence, there is a total of 4 combinations
Let Part B be Bb and Bb... If both traits crosses; we have
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
Hence, there is a total of 4 combinations
Let C be Cc and Cc ... If both traits crossses; we have
C c
C CC Cc
c Cc cc
Hence, there is a total of 4 combinations
Let D be Dd and Dd... If both traits crosses; we have
D d
D DD Dd
d Dd dd
Hence, there is a total of 4 combinations
A genotype has the 4 groups together. Therefore the possible number of ways of forming the genotype = 4 x 4 x 4 x 4= 256
Now, Probability that the F2 offspring would be expected to be genotypically AABBCCdd = [tex]\frac{number of genotype AABBCCdd}{Total number of genotype in the offsprings}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{1}{256}[/tex]
"A pregnant client comes to the prenatal clinic complaining of urinary frequency and lower back pain on the right, stating that this has never happened before. An exam validates the diagnosis of pyelonephritis. What factors would contribute to this condition?
Answer: Pyelonepheritis is basically the inflammtion of kidney.
There alot of causes of pyelonephritis apart from pegnancy as the most common being the bacterial infection.
Explanation:
Pyelonephritis is the severe infection of the kidneys, which may cause fever and flank tenderness along with nausea,vomiting,burning and frequent mictuaration.
Its main cause is bacterial infection mainly 80% infected by E.coli, other bacteria includes Protues, Staphylococcus,Klebsiella species.
Risk factors include sexual intercourse, previous urinary tract infections, diabetes and structural problems of urinary tract.
Pyelonephritis a kidney infection, is more common in pregnant women due to physiological changes such as urinary tract dilation, reduced bladder tone, slowed peristalsis, and hormonal influences, which create favorable conditions for bacterial growth and the ascent of infection from the bladder to the kidneys.
Explanation:The condition mentioned in your question is pyelonephritis, an infection affecting one or both kidneys. It's more commonly seen in women, especially during pregnancy, which is often due to a few contributing factors. During pregnancy, physiological changes such as increased urinary tract dilation and reduced bladder tone increase the likelihood of urinary stasis and vesicoureteral reflux, which are two conditions that facilitate the propagation of bacteria from the bladder to the upper urinary tract. More so, progestogens and estrogens supplying the gravid uterus cause relaxation of smooth muscle in the urinary tract, providing a conducive environment for bacterial growth. This, coupled with a physiologic decrease in urine concentration and urinary tract peristalsis, may give rise to a urinary tract infection, leading to pyelonephritis if the infection ascends to the kidneys.
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The mosses and ferns both require water to enable the sperm to travel to the egg and fertilize it. Does this indicate that the ferns and mosses have a close relation to water plants? Explain your reasoning.
Answer:
Yes, the ferns and the mosses might have close relation to water plants.
Explanation:
The adaptations of mosses and ferns show that they are primitive species which are imperfectly adapted to live in a terrestrial environment. For example, the mosses do not possess roots so that they can get water from the soil. Also, the mosses lack vascular tissues which allow transportation of water in a plant. Both, mosses and ferns, require for reproduction. These characteristics show that they once had ancestors that lived in the water. Hence, the mosses and ferns have close relation with water plants.
The need for water in fertilization processes of ferns and mosses doesn't mean they are closely related to water plants. This requirement reflects their primitive characteristics rather than an affinity with aquatic plants.
Explanation:The requirement of water for the process of fertilization in both ferns and mosses does not necessarily mean they are closely related to water plants. Many land plants, including ferns and mosses, have not fully adapted to the terrestrial environment and still require water for certain processes, like fertilization. It's their primitive characteristic rather than a sign of close relation with aquatic plants. Aquatic plants, on the other hand, have specifically adapted to survive and reproduce entirely in a water environment.
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