Answer:
a. Edema could be a sign of kidney failure. A urine sample might contain protein or urea.
Explanation:
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is characterized by the progressive loss of the ability of the kidneys to filter blood, so that the patient may experience symptoms such as swelling in the feet and ankles, weakness and the appearance of foam in the urine, for example.
Therefore, it is important for these people to have regular urine and blood tests with creatinine levels to check if the kidneys are working properly and if there is a risk of developing.
The doctor likely asked for a urine specimen from Jackie due to the suspicion of a kidney problem. Swelling or edema in the ankles can be a sign of kidney disease, and a urine test would detect the presence of protein or urea, indicating poor kidney function.
Explanation:The most likely reason for the doctor's request for a urine specimen is due to the suspicion of kidney problems which could be indicated by swelling or edema in the ankles. Kidneys play an essential role in removing waste products and extra fluid from the body. If the kidneys are not functioning correctly, these can accumulate in the body, leading to symptoms like swelling in the legs and ankles.
To detect a possible kidney failure, doctors could look for the presence of protein or urea in the urine. Normally, your kidneys filter out these byproducts, but if they are not working efficiently, proteins and urea might leak into the urine, which could indicate kidney disease.
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A client comes to the emergency department because of minimal urinary output despite drinking adequate fluid. The client's blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg. For what additional clinical manifestation associated with this data should the nurse assess the client?
1. Thirst
2. Weight gain
3. Urinary retention
4. Urinary hesitancy
Answer:
Weight gain.
Explanation:
The humans can be classified as the underweight, normal weight or over weight. The individual might gain weight due o his daily life style and some times improper functioning of the body.
The weight gain problem can leads to the different disease in the humans. As given in the question, the urine is not excreting out from the body. This means the excess product is stored in the body and this might result in the weight gain of the individual. The poisonous substance may also accumulate in the body.
Thus, the answer is option (2).
Tessa and Noah are looking to buy their first house. Their real estate agent takes them to one house that strongly smells of cigarette smoke and cat urine. They both are disgusted by the smells and immediately exit the house. If the electrical activity of the brain were measured while they were having this negative emotion, then:
Answer:
If the electrical activity of the brain were measured while they were having this negative emotion, then their right prefrontal cortex are more electrically active.
Explanation:
The brain controls many of the actions that people do. It is regarded as the most important organ in a person. When it comes to the positive and negative emotions of a person, the "prefrontal" part of the brain plays a vital role. The right prefrontal cortex governs negative behaviors and feelings while the left prefrontal cortex governs positive behavior and feelings.
It is clearly stated that Tessa and Noah were immediately disappointed by the strong smell of cigarette smoke and cat urine in the house, that they decided to leave. This means that they were having a negative emotion, which in turn proves that the right prefrontal cortex is more electrically active at that moment.
It is common to have an unbalanced electrical activity between the right prefrontal cortex and the left prefrontal cortex. However, in some cases, one side is very active while the other is super inactive. An example of this is a depressed individual. A depressed person will have a super active right prefrontal cortex and a super inactive left prefrontal cortex.
Final answer:
When Tessa and Noah were disgusted by the smells in the house, their negative emotion would have been associated with increased activation of the amygdala in their brains.
Explanation:
When Tessa and Noah were disgusted by the smells of the house, their negative emotion would have been associated with increased activation of the amygdala in their brains. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, especially fear and aversion. This reaction is similar to what has been observed in animal research, where odor cues paired with negative experiences lead to aversion and increased amygdala activation. Therefore, in this situation, the electrical activity of Tessa and Noah's amygdala would have been heightened.
A person with sight in only one eye lacks which of the following visual cues for seeing in depth?a. retinal disparity
b. linear perspective
c. motion parallax
d. relative size
Answer:
The correct answer is a. retinal disparity
Explanation:
Humans have two eyes that see the image at slightly different angles and for perception depth it is important to see the object from both the eyes. Retinal disparity is the way which helps in depth perception.
In this situation, the image seen by both the eyes at different angles is processed by the brain and after processing it is seen as a single image with the correct depth of the image. In many situations retinal disparity comes into play like diving.
Therefore if a person lacks an eye then retinal disparity is the visual cue that would be lacked by him.
A person with sight in only one eye lacks retinal disparity for seeing in depth.
Depth perception is first produced by retinal disparity, that is, the difference between the images of the two eyes, from which this difference is transformed into depth perception or stereopsis.
That is, retinal disparity is the difference in monocular images produced by the projection of points of the visual field provided by both eyes.
The lateral shift of the eyes provides two slightly different views of the same object (slightly different retinal images).Retinal disparity is essential for stereoscopic depth perception resulting from the fusion of slightly disparate images.Therefore, we can conclude that a person with sight in only one eye lacks retinal disparity.
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People on a team may be somewhat apprehensive about expressing their ideas because they are concerned about others judging and evaluating them. The desire to be liked and have opinions that fit in with the group is best termed:
Answer:
Conformity
Explanation:
One of the most common form of social influence that makes an individual to desire to “fit in” in a group is conformity. It describes the tendency of an individual to exhibit behaviors and have beliefs that are generally considered okay by the group. For example, if smoking is a behavior considered cool and a way of life by a certain group of young high school students, a member of the group who does not agree to this generally held view by the group may likely be influenced to eventually take up such behavior and belief by conforming to the group’s perceived idea of smoking as an acceptable norm.
Answer:
Conformity
Explanation:
Conformity is defined as the compliance with standards, rules, or laws.
What is Abraham Maslow best known for?
a. classical conditioning
b. proposing a hierarchy of human needs in motivating behavior
c. studying the influence of reinforcement and punishment on behavior
d. dream analysis
Answer:
b. proposing a hierarchy of human needs in motivating behavior is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Abraham Harold Maslow was considered the father of humanistic psychology and he was best known for introducing a hierarchy of requirements in motivating performance and behavior.Hierarchy of needs is the theory which is presented by Abraham Maslow, which sets that people are influenced through five fundamental kinds of needs:physiologicallove safety esteem self-actualization hierarchy of needs is utilized to know how the people intrinsically participate in behavior motivation.Abraham Maslow is best known for proposing a hierarchy of human needs in motivating behavior.
Abraham Maslow is best known for proposing a hierarchy of human needs in motivating behavior. Maslow's theory, known as Maslow's hierarchy of needs, suggests that humans have a hierarchy of five basic needs: physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, and self-actualization. According to Maslow, individuals are motivated to fulfill these needs in order, with the most basic needs taking priority.
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Appetite is triggered by:________. a) a physiological drive. b) environmental cues, such as the smell or taste of food. c) pancreatic enzymes. d) stomach enzymes.
Answer: the correct option is B ( environmental cues, such as the smell or taste of food)
Explanation:Appetite is triggered by environmental cues, such as the smell or taste of food. Appetite is defined as the desire to eat food and serves to regulate adequate energy intake to maintain metabolic needs.
Appetite is triggered by a physiological drive and environmental cues, such as the smell or taste of food.
Explanation:Appetite is a complex phenomenon influenced by both physiological and environmental factors. The physiological drive behind appetite involves the intricate interplay of hormones and internal signals that regulate hunger and satiety.
One key hormone involved is ghrelin, often referred to as the "hunger hormone." Ghrelin is secreted by the stomach and stimulates appetite when it's time to eat. On the contrary, leptin, produced by fat cells, plays a role in signaling fullness and reducing appetite. These hormones form a dynamic feedback system to maintain energy balance.
Beyond hormonal regulation, environmental cues significantly impact appetite. The mere sight, smell, or taste of food can trigger a desire to eat, even in the absence of physiological hunger. Our senses play a pivotal role in influencing food choices and meal initiation.
Moreover, social and cultural factors also shape our eating habits. Meal times, portion sizes, and the presence of others during meals can influence our appetite.
In summary, appetite is a multifaceted process. Physiological signals and hormonal regulation interact with sensory and environmental cues, making it a dynamic interplay between our internal state and external influences. Understanding these factors is crucial for maintaining a balanced and healthy approach to eating.
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Vitamin K is synthesized by bacteria in the mouth pancreas large intestine stomach.
Answer:
The correct answer is- Large intestine
Explanation:
Vitamin K is an very essential vitamin that is required by the body to produce many clotting factors for example clotting factor II, IX, X, etc.
Green vegetables are the primary source of providing vitamin K1(phylloquinone) and vitamin K2(menaquinones) is synthesized in the body by some bacteria which is present in the large intestine.
Bacteria such as E.coli are capable of synthesizing vitamin K2 in large intestine from where it is absorbed in lymph present in the intestine. So the correct answer is the large intestine.
The _____ is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem.
Final answer:
The reticular formation is a network of neurons within the brainstem that filters incoming stimuli and is involved in several bodily functions. Thus the statement is - The reticular formation is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem.
Explanation:
The reticular formation is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem. Running through the medulla and the pons, its main functions include filtering stimuli from the spinal cord, relaying signals to other brain areas, and playing essential roles in various bodily processes such as walking, eating, sexual activity, and sleeping. Moreover, the reticular formation collects input from higher brain centers and passes it on to motor neurons. The brainstem, consisting of the midbrain, medulla oblongata, and the pons, is extremely significant as it controls vital bodily functions including alertness, arousal, breathing, blood pressure, digestion, heart rate, swallowing, and integrates sensory and motor information.
Charles Spearman believed that _____ was/were responsible for overall performance on mental ability tests.
Answer:Charles Spearman believed that
general intelligence, or the G FACTOR
was/were responsible for overall performance on mental ability tests.
Explanation:Charles Spearman was an English psychologist known to propose the theory of intelligence. He proposed that an underlying factor of general intelligence exists that forms the foundation out of which all intellectual abilities rise( the G factor).
Sheree is referred to a genetic counselor because a cystic fibrosis (CF) test done as a routine part of her prenatal care indicated that she is a carrier of the most common mutant allele. Sheree is stunned, because no one in her family has the disease. She is 26 years old. The genetic counselor would most likely:
Options in the questions are
A. Explain autosomal recessive inheritance and suggest that Sheree's husband be tested for CF.
B. Explain autosomal dominant inheritance and suggest that Sheree's husband be tested for CF.
C. Explain autosomal recessive inheritance and suggest that Sheree's parents be tested for CF.
D. Advise Sheree to have amniocentesis to check the fetus for the CF genotype.
Answer: Explain autosomal recessive inheritance and suggest that Sheree's husband be tested for CF.
Martha, who has just turned 90, has been experiencing some respiratory distress. Her doctor has told her that she has a cluster of abnormal cells in her left lung. Since she has never smoked, she asks her doctor what might have caused the abnormal cells. In response, her doctor explains that the number of body cells experiencing abnormalities increases as we age. This explanation reflects which theory of aging?
Answer:
Hayflick theory
Explanation:
According to Hayflick theory aging process is controlled by a biological clock which lie within each living cell. According to this theory human cells have a limited life span.
this theory explain the mechanisms behind cellular aging. It suggests that a normal human cell can only replicate and divide arount forty to sixty times before it cannot divide anymore, and will break down by programmed cell death or apoptosis due to which number of body cells experiencing abnormalities with age.
Drugs called cholinesterase inhibitors have been effective in slowing down the progression of in mild to oderate stages of the disease.
a) true
b) false
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Cholinesterase is known medication which is important inhibitor for mild to moderate Alzheimer disease. This drug help to reduce, and control some behavioural symptoms of diseases.
This drug prevents the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain. Acetylcholine is known as the brain chemical which is important for thinking, and memory. Some side effects of Cholinesterase includes vomiting, nausea, muscles cramps, fatigue, weight loss, and diarrhea.
Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate? A. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method B. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method C. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method D. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
Karvonen is known for his work on coronary heart disease and epidemiology and giving the formula for calculating the target heart rate zone during the training called 220-age formula.
The formula is based on the age and resting heart rate of the trainer. To measure the heart rate first the resting heart rate of a person is measured every fifteen-minute.
Then find age-predicted maximum heart rate by subtracting the age of the person from 220.
The heart rate reserve is calculated then by subtracting the resting heart rate from the maximal heart rate.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
A client is performing a prone iso-ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is not able to maintain proper alignment. How should the exercise be regressed
Answer:
Perform in a standard push-up position.
Explanation:
Exercise are important for the individual to stay fit and healthy. Different individuals perform different exercise according to their body need and for their strength development.
Iso ab exercise is done to increase their body strength. The abdominal muscle get contracted during this exercise. If the individual is not able to perform this exercise, the exercise can be regressed by performing the pusp up positions.
Thus, the answer is perform in a standard push-up position.
Jody is taking a nutrition class and has been assigned to evaluate a popular diet plan. She finds a description of a plan for her assignment in a magazine at the grocery store. Which of the following statements in the magazine would suggest that this plan is an unsound, fad diet?
A. "On this plan, you can lose up to 1 pound per week!"
B. "Once you complete this 6 month plan, you'll never have to diet again"
C. "Keep fresh fruit and carrot sticks in the fridge at work so you won't be tempted to raid the vending machine for a snack"
D. "Starting an aerobic exercise plan may seem daunting, but you can start out with shorter, easier sessions and then build up to 3+ hours a week"
Answer:
its letter B
Explanation:
Once you complete this 6 month plan, you'll never have to diet again will suggest that this plan is an unsound, fad diet.
What is a diet plan?A diet plan is a set of guidelines for the types and amounts of food that an individual should consume in order to achieve a specific health goal, such as weight loss, weight gain, or maintenance of current weight. Diet plans often include specific recommendations for daily intake of nutrients, such as the amount of carbohydrates, protein, and fat that should be consumed. Some diet plans may be based on specific foods or food groups, while others may place more emphasis on the overall balance of nutrients in the diet.
Diet plans can be formulated by healthcare professionals, such as registered dietitians, or they can be found in books or online resources. It's important to choose a diet plan that is appropriate for an individual's needs and goals, and that is based on sound scientific evidence.
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Research suggests that older adults require ______ the current RDA for protein for adults.
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same amount as
Answer:
1: More than
Explanation:
As people get older, their body starts to deteriorate, and their functions are slowed down. A person who is 70 is much more fragile than someone in their 20s. The body of an elderly person starts to absorb less nutrients, as their body starts slowing down, therefore when you get older, it is natural to take some supplements or medication. Research suggests that older adults require more than the current RDA (Recommended Daily Amount) for protein for adults.
Sometimes a medical condition is visible to the naked eye even if it does not involve the skin. A lack of the mineral ______ can cause ______, which is such a disorder.
a) vitamin K; inadequate blood clotting
b) iodine; a goiter
c) potassium; pernicious anemia
d) sodium; hypertension
Answer:
The right answer should be b, but i apologize if i am wrong.
Explanation:
The lack of iodine causes thyroid enlargement and goiter. As the body's iodine levels fall, hypothyroidism may develop because iodine is needed for making thyroid hormone.
is a condition characterized by inadequate intake of calories and/or essential nutrients.
Answer:Undernutrition/Malnutrition
Explanation:
This occurs when there is a deficiency of energy and nutrients to meet up the requirements of an individual for optimum health. This usually result due to inadequate intake, increased demand or inability to utilize it when taken.
They are usually seen in infants shortly after stoppage of breastfeeding with poor feeding or wrong nutritional support but could also occur in adults with secondary systemic infections.
If at all possible, maneuver to avoid a ________ collision which involves extreme force upon impact and is statistically more likely to result in injury or death.
Answer:
Head-on.
Explanation:
Maneuver warfare may be defined as a type of the military strategy that advocate the attempt to defeat the opposite team. The enemy can be incapacitating by shock and disruption.
The enemy can be completely killed by the maneuver techniques. The head on collision during the maneuver is quite dangerous. Proper techniques are required to reduce the head on collision as this collision might result in the death of an individual.
Thus, the answer is head on.
To avoid significant injury or death, it is crucial to maneuver to prevent a head-on collision, characterized by a direct and forceful impact. The impulse and resulting forces from a collision can be lessened through safety features like airbags, which prolong the duration of impact and reduce the force felt by occupants.
Explanation:If at all possible, maneuver to avoid a head-on collision, which involves extreme force upon impact and is statistically more likely to result in injury or death. A head-on collision is one where the angle between the initial velocity vectors is close to zero, indicating the objects are moving directly towards each other. Collisions in general are complex events where bodies exert a high magnitude of force on each other for a very short period, possibly leading to deformation or even decomposition of the bodies involved.
The impulse experienced during collisions can be mitigated by extending the time over which the force acts, such as the use of airbags in cars. Materials like plastics allow cars to crumple upon impact, which increases the time of collision, thereby reducing the force experienced by occupants. In any collision scenario, the goal is to reduce the force experienced by the occupants, and thereby reduce the injuries sustained.
Having a clear understanding of the physics involved in traffic collisions can greatly help in designing safer vehicles and in educating drivers on the importance of avoiding such dangerous situations as head-on collisions.
What are the general functions of clinical classifications, vocabularies, and terminologies?
Answer:
It aims to standardize and improve terms, concepts and acronyms, improving the retrieval, access, dissemination and dissemination of institutional information in the health area.
Explanation:
Clinical classifications, vocabularies and terminologies are a standardized set of concepts (and their synonyms) for the registration of health events and interventions in detail enough to support the care process in health, decision support, clinical research and improved quality of health care; is that can be mapped to other classifications and epidemiological code systems, administrative, regulatory and fiscal matters.
Martha has taken on the responsibility of caring for her mother who has had a series of health problems that interfere with her ability to live alone. Martha needs respite from the everyday responsibility of care taking and her mother needs opportunities for socialization. Their best alternative is?
Answer:
Adult day care.
Explanation:
The individual that suffers from the disease requires special attentions nd medical care. They require any medical attendant or some one who can take care of their health.
The responsibility of the children that they should take care of their parents if parents require medical attention. There are various adult day care centers. These centers provide health services and daily living needs of Martha here shows the adult day care.
Thus, the answer is adult day care.
The condition that occurs when too much water is consumed and/or too much sodium is lost in sweating, resulting in abnormally low levels of sodium in the blood, is called___________.
Answer:
hyponatremia
Explanation:
There are clinical situations in which when performing blood tests, natremia values are detected that are less than normal, which are not really correct since, when making more precise determinations, the amount of sodium is normal, they are the false hyponatremia or pseudohyponatias. Drinking plenty of water is a piece of advice that we listen to doctors and friends every day, but like everything else, the limit and sanity need to be imposed, because while it is true that drinking too little is bad, drinking it too much. When consulting various health sites we find that it is valid to divide the body weight taken in kilos by 30. Thus, if a person weighs 70 kilograms, they should drink at least 2.3 liters of water a day. At its maximum risk level, overhydration can cause brain inflammation due to too much fluid access to the brain, and among the symptoms that stand out are lethargy, (tendency to sleep, decreased ability to react), agitation, seizures, all symptoms that can be confused with those of dehydration and lead us erroneously to drink more.
Hyponatremia is diagnosed with a blood test, but we need to do more studies to identify its cause. The diagnostic process begins with a detailed history and examination to look for symptoms and signs of diseases related to hyponatremia (edema in heart failure, blood pressure figures, mucosal turgor, etc.). A blood test will be performed and urine to be included: determination of Na (to confirm hyponatremia), blood biochemistry (urea, creatinine, glucose, ions, total proteins and triglycerides), blood count with formula and leukocyte count, urine biochemistry (with Na in urine), plasma and urinary osmolarity, acid-base balance. The algorithm summarizes this diagnostic process and how with four analytical parameters the etiology of hyponatremia can be determined: Plasma and urinary osmolarity and concentrations of Na and K in urine. Through urinary osmolarity and the concentration of Na in urine we can assess the response to treatment.
Answer:
Hyponatremia
Explanation:
Hyponatremia occurs when your blood sodium level goes below 135 mEq/L. When the sodium level in your blood is too low, extra water goes into your cells and makes them swell.
Which of the following individuals would MOST likely have the lowest basal metabolic rate?
A. a 28-year-old conditioned male athlete
B. a 28-year-old anorexic woman
C. a 28-year-old normal weight male
D. a 28-year-old pregnant woman
Answer:
B. A 28 year old sedentary female
Explanation:
Sedentary females need 1,800 calories daily
Which provision concerns the insured's duty to provide the insurer with reasonable notice in the event of a loss?
Answer:
Notice of Claim
Explanation:
A notice of claim is an advance notice that an individual may offer to an organization from any level of government, before filing a claim for damages, where the individual has suffered a loss. In summary, this document warns the organization of a customer complaint that may initiate a real action against the organization if the organization does not resolve the case earlier.
In other words, a notice of clain is a provision that concerns the insured's duty to provide the insurer with reasonable notice in the event of loss.
After K completed an application for health insurance, a paramedical scheduled an appointment to check height, weight, blood pressure, and collect blood and urine samples. This is an example of which source of underwriting?
Answer:
Medical exam
Explanation:
In a physical examination, medical examination, or clinical examination, a medical practitioner examines a patient for any possible medical signs or symptoms of a medical condition.
The act of checking an individual's health status through tests and history to assess the risk they pose to an insurer is known as medical underwriting. It is utilized by health insurance companies to determine the coverage and the pricing.
Explanation:The scenario provided is an example of medical underwriting. Medical underwriting is a process used by insurers, such as health insurance companies, to assess an individual's health status and calculate the risk they pose to the insurer. It involves gathering detailed health information, including medical history, lifestyle habits, and the results of medical examinations, like the one described. The insurance company then uses this information to decide whether to offer insurance, and at what price.
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Ms. Heil is a new teacher at Roosevelt High School. She is concerned about her students and pays close attention to their affective behavior. When assessing a student’s potential for suicidal behavior, Ms. Heil should look for all of the following EXCEPT:
Which measure of body composition can provide information on regional fat distribution and can also provide measurement of bone density?
A. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scanB. Air displacement plethysmographyC. Near-infrared spectroscopyD. Bioelectric impedance
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan
Which sport was derived from the greek word meaning ""to exercise naked""?
Answer:
gymnastics "gymnos"
Explanation:
Answer:
The name comes from the Ancient Greek term gymnós meaning "naked"
Explanation:
The gymnasium in Ancient Greece functioned as a training facility for competitors in public game(s).The name comes from the Ancient Greek term gymnós meaning "naked".
Researchers suggested three possible reasons that why watching TV is negatively linked to children's achievement. This includes interference, displacement and________________.
Answer: Self-defeating taste/preferences
Explanation:
There really isn’t a straightforward answer here because it depends on which of the research you are are sighting. I did a few digging and came up with this and I hope it answers your question.
Researches over the years have had to investigate the connection between children watch Television and the long term effects of it and quite a bum agrees that watching television could negatively affect a child when the time devoted for this becomes much.
In terms of its effects towards achievements, reasons given includes interference, displacements and self-defeating taste/preferences
A shipment of 4,000 kg. of Class 8 (corrosive) material and a shipment of 3,629 liters of a Class 3 (flammable liquid) material are loaded at one loading facility on a freight container, unit load device, transport vehicle, or rail car. What placard(s) must be displayed on the container, device, vehicle, or car?
Answer:
Corrosive and flammable.
Explanation:
Some corrosives are also flammable or combustible and can easily catch fire and burn or explode.