Answer:
Maria noticed a positive correlation
Explanation:
Correlation is used to measure the extend to which two or more variables are related.
It can be positive where one variable increases when the other increases.
Negative where the increase of one aspect decrease the other variable.
Lastly, no correlation means there is no relationship between the two variables hence a change in one will not affect the other.
In the case of maria, there is a positive correlation between having more energy the next day and her dancing.
Using the Hardy-Weinberg Law of Equilibrium, evaluate whether the populations are in equilibrium or not.
Scenario 1 You have a population of 1000 people, and you are looking at the population genetics of a blood marker that has two alleles. The dominant allele (Y) makes the protein, and the recessive allele (y) does not make the protein. When you test the blood of the population, you find: 490 people have the genotype YY 420 people have the genotype Yy 90 people have the genotype yy What are the allele frequencies (Y and y)? What are the expected genotype frequencies (YY, Yy, and yy)? Is the population in equilibrium? Yes or no? If the population is not in equilibrium, which of the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg do you think may have been violated?
Scenario 2 Now, a few of the people in your study population move to settle an isolated, empty island. You travel to the island and do a genetic survey of the population. 60 are YY 40 are Yy 0 are yy What are the allele frequencies (Y and y)? What are the expected genotype frequencies (YY, Yy, and yy)? Is the population in equilibrium? Yes or no? If the population is not in equilibrium, which of the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg do you think may have been violated?
Answer/Explanation:
Scenario 1
What are the allele frequencies (Y and y)?
490 people have the genotype YY, 420 people have the genotype Yy, and 90 people have the genotype yy.
The allele frequency of Y is 490 (from the YY group) + half of 420 (from the Yy group) = 700. There are 1000 people total, so the allele frequency of Y is 700/1000 = 0.7 (70%)
The allele frequency of y is 90 (from the yy group) + half of 420 (from the Yy group) = 300. There are 1000 people total, so the allele frequency of y 300/1000 = 0.3 (30%)
This checks out, as the equation for the allele frequencies for 2 alleles of a gene is p + q = 1.0. In this case, Y + y = 1 (as 0.7 + 0.3 = 1)
What are the expected genotype frequencies (YY, Yy, and yy)?
The expected genotypes based on genotype frequencies p and q are calculated from the following equation:
p² + 2pq + q² = 1 (or 100%).
Therefore, the expected frequency of YY (p²) is 0.7² = 0.49 (or 49%). For a population of 1000, that means we expect 490 YY.
The expected frequency of Yy (2pq) is 2 x 0.3 x 0.7 = 0.42 (or 42%) For a population of 1000, that means we expect 420 Yy.
The expected frequency of yy (q²) is 0.3² = 0.09 (or 42%) For a population of 1000, that means we expect 90 yy.
Is the population in equilibrium? Yes or no?
This matches up with our observations exactly (and the total of the values 0.49 + 0.42 + 0.09 = 1), meaning that yes, the population is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
Scenario 2
What are the allele frequencies (Y and y)?
60 people have the genotype YY, 40 people have the genotype Yy, and 0 people have the genotype yy.
The allele frequency of Y is 60 (from the YY group) + half of 40 (from the Yy group) = 80. There are 100 people total (60 + 40 + 0), so the allele frequency of Y is 80/100 = 0.8 (80%)
The allele frequency of y is 0 (from the yy group) + half of 40 (from the Yy group) = 20. There are 100 people total (60 + 40 + 0), so the allele frequency of Y is 20/100 = 0.2 (20%)
What are the expected genotype frequencies (YY, Yy, and yy)?
The expected genotypes based on genotype frequencies p and q are calculated from the following equation:
p² + 2pq + q² = 1 (or 100%).
Therefore, the expected frequency of YY (p²) is 0.8² = 0.64 (or 64%). For a population of 100, that means we expect 64 YY.
The expected frequency of Yy (2pq) is 2 x 0.8 x 0.2 = 0.32 (or 32%) For a population of 100, that means we expect 32 Yy.
The expected frequency of yy (q²) is 0.2² = 0.04 (or 4%) For a population of 100, that means we expect 4 yy.
Is the population in equilibrium? Yes or no?
No, the population deviates from Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, because we are missing any individuals with a yy genotype. This means the observed frequencies are not true of the expected frequency
If the population is not in equilibrium, which of the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg do you think may have been violated?
The assumption that has likely been violated is that the population is large. This population is small, and is a small sample of the original population, meaning genetic variation is reduced.
(Multiple answers) Choose which of the following are true for how the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI; includes RDA, AI and UL) may be appropriately used: Group of answer choices planning diets for population groups (like military or schools) estimating the adequacy of an individual's nutrient intake. estimating the nutrient needs of persons with medical problems.
Answer:
Correct Answer: Estimating the adequacy of an individual’s nutrient intake
Explanation:
Dietary Reference Intake is used to plan a diet for a regular healthy individual and not for a group of people or for people with medical problems. This is Dietary Reference introduced by the Institute of medicine of the national academies in the US. In order for it to be an average reference that can be widely used by people everywhere around the globe it has to take into account the nutrition recommendations for a single healthy individual, as this eliminates several unknown variables. People with medical problems or population groups cannot appropriately use this as a reference as they do not represent a dietary norm; however, individuals from these groups are free to use the DRI in order to properly plan their meals and nutritional intake.
Final answer:
Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) include a range of reference values for nutrient intake which are used for diet planning for groups and individuals, as well as assessing dietary adequacy and determining nutrient needs for those with medical conditions. These reference values adjust based on age, gender, health status, and activity level.
Explanation:
The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are a set of reference values used for planning and assessing nutrient intakes of healthy people. These values, which vary by age and gender, include the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR), Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), Adequate Intake (AI), and the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). The DRIs can indeed be used for various purposes including planning diets for population groups such as military or schools, estimating the adequacy of an individual's nutrient intake, and as a reference point in assessing nutrient needs of persons with medical problems, although care and additional considerations should be given in such medical circumstances.
The RDA provides a guideline that professionals use to assess diet quality and is set to meet the needs of 97.5% of the population, based on the EAR. Understanding the different nutrient requirements can help individuals meet their specific nutritional needs, tailored by factors such as age, gender, health status, and activity level. Given the public health concern in the United States, key quantitative recommendations are also provided for limiting certain components of the diet within calorie restrictions to achieve healthy eating patterns.
In addition to having a 50% chance of inheriting autosomal dominant disorders from an affected parent, such a disorder is characterized by:
Answer: In addition to having a 50% chance of inheriting autosomal dominant disorders from an affected parent, such a disorder is characterized by equal frequency of occurrence in both sexes (male and female).
Explanation: Autosomal dominant disorder has the following characteristics;
1. Appears in both sexes with equal frequency.
2. Does not skip generations.
3. Affected offsprings must have an affected parent unless they possess a new mutation.
4. Unaffected parents do not transmit the disorder.
5. When one parent is affected (heterozygous) and the other parent is unaffected, approximately 50% of the offsprings will be affected.
In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and _____ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
A) the 5' phosphate
B) C6
C) the 3' OH
D) a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base
Answer:
d
Explanation:
Answer: C) the 3' OH
Explanation: OH group of phosphoric acid at carbon 5 reacts with the OH group of of other molecule at carbon 3 with release of H2O, forming two ester bonds.
A scientific study looked at the effect of tanning beds on DNA damage. The scientists took skin cells and exposed them to UV radiation (the type used in indoor tanning beds) for different lengths of time: some for 1 minute, some for 5 minutes, some for 15 minutes, and some for 30 minutes. They then looked for signs of DNA damage and compared the results to cells that had never been exposed to UV light. What is the independent variable in this experiment
Answer:
Tanning of DNA using UV light at different time (1 minutes, 15 minutes, and 30 minutes)
Explanation:
Independent variable is the variable that was controlled or change and in this case it is the tanning of DNA with UV light at different times and the dependent variable is what is measured or the effect of the change in the independent variable which is DNA damage and the control was the cells that did not receive the treatment.
The independent variable in this experiment is the amount of time the skin cells were exposed to UV radiation. While UV-A radiation from tanning beds is considered 'safe' compared to UV-B, prolonged exposure can still cause DNA damage and increase the risk of cancer.
Explanation:The independent variable in the experiment is the length of time that the skin cells were exposed to UV radiation from tanning beds. This is what the scientists deliberately changed to observe what effect different durations of UV exposure would have on DNA damage in skin cells. They compared cells exposed for 1, 5, 15, and 30 minutes to cells not exposed to UV radiation at all.
It is important to note that the 'safe' UV radiation used in tanning salons is UV-A light, which has a longer wavelength than the more damaging UV-B radiation found in natural sunlight. Although it's branded as 'safe,' UV-A has enough photon energy to trigger the tanning mechanism in the skin, which is a defense mechanism. However, with prolonged exposure, UV-A radiation can still lead to cell damage and has the potential to induce cancer, as established by the World Health Organization's classification of UV radiation as a Group 1 carcinogen.
Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar way to perform about the same function. Which of the following would suggest that the relationship more likely represents homology instead of convergent evolution?
Answer: The member of two different species possess similar looking structure that in a similar way perform same function is homology.
Explanation: The term homology describes shared ancestry pair of structures. For example, apes and dogs are different and the arms of ape and forelegs of a dog are derived from ancestry tetrapod structure that perform similar function like aiding locomotion.
in order to maintain blood glucose homeostasis, which of the following events would likely occur in response to a significant rise in blood glucose.True/false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon. Both hormones work in balance to play a vital role in regulating blood sugar levels. If the level of one hormone is higher or lower than the ideal range, blood sugar levels may spike or drop.
Long arms with short legs and a short, stable lumbar spine are traits associated with which of the following? Group of answer choices
1. arboreal quadrupedalism.
2. brachiation.
3. vertical clinging and leaping.
4. full-time bipedalism
5. terrestrial quadrupedalism.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option 2.
Explanation:
Brachiation is a movement or locomotion in which movement is occurred by the swinging from changing the hold from one arm to the other. In this primate such as spider monkeys, gibbons, and other similar primates those have long arms with comparatively smaller legs and stable but short lumbar spine. These longer arms help in making hold and swinging from one tree to another.
Thus, the correct answer is - option 2.
Answer:
Brachiation.
Explanation:
Arboreal activities are developed in the organisms that has the ability to fly and remains limited to the lands. Different arboreal mechanism include clinging, brachiation and leaping.
Brachiation is also known as the arm swinging in which the individual swings from one branch to other branch by using the arms only. The organisms that are adapted to brachiation has short legs and the longer arms. The lumbar spine is quite stable and supported by the forelimb.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
The only phylum in the group Parazoans is ________. A. Porifera B. Cnidaria C. Lophotrochozoa D. Ctenophora E. Ecdysozoa
Answer:
A. Porifera
Explanation:
Parazoan is a sub-kingdom of animal consisting only of the phylum of sponges (porifera), having two tissue layers only and lacking a nervous system and true digestive cavity.
They have certain characteristics like: sponges are marine, but there are some freshwater sponges that enjoy their water without salt. Most sponges do not have any type of symmetry, but some are radially symmetrical and they come in a variety of shapes, colors, and sizes, they are multicellular, heterotrophic and lack cell walls. Unlike other organisms, sponges lack true tissues and organs.
The mesohyl functions as an endoskeleton in most sponges, and is the only skeleton in soft sponges. This mesohyl is stiffened by mineral spicules, by spongin fibers or both.
What is the function of a selectively permeable membrane? A. It allows no large molecules to leave the cell and all large molecules to enter. B. It allows some molecules to enter the cell and blocks entry to others. C. It allows all molecules to enter the cell but blocks them all from leaving. D. It allows all molecules to enter the cell and allows all molecules to leave.
Answer: Option b: it allows some molecules to enter the cell and block entry to others.
Explanation: selective permeability allows those molecules to enter the cell which are small, uncharged. Large molecules pass slowly.
A tricky question with no single right answer: In maintaining the functional shape of an enzyme, are the non-covalent interactions or covalent bonds stronger?
Answer:
Covalent interactions are stronger, due to the fact that each individual bond is a much stronger bond.
The cellular process of synthesizing large molecules from smaller ones is defined as The cellular process of synthesizing large molecules from smaller ones is defined as __________.a. metabolism. b. catalysis. c. dehydration. d. anabolism. e. catabolism.
Answer:
D (anabolism)
Explanation:
Organisms of differing range undergo certain chemical reactions in their cell. The collection of all the chemical reaction they undergo is called METABOLISM. Metabolism is a balance between its two types which are: ANABOLISM and CATABOLISM.
Anabolism is the build up of larger and complex units or molecules using smaller ones. Due to the fact that it involves building up, it is referred to as CONSTRUCTIVE METABOLISM. The anabolic process usually involves expending energy to assemble this smaller molecules, hence it is said to be ENDERGONIC i.e. energy requiring. A common example of anabolism occurs in the Chloroplast of plant cells, where the captured energy from sunlight is used to assemble carbondioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) to form an organic sugar molecule (glucose).
On the other hand, CATABOLISM is the opposite of anabolism, and it involves breaking down of these complex molecules into simpler ones. The energy released in this process is made use of in anabolism.
The process of synthesizing large molecules from smaller ones is called anabolism, which is option d. It is a metabolic process that generally requires energy, which is derived from catabolism, another part of the body's metabolic systems.
Explanation:An instance of an anabolic process can be seen in the creation of proteins from individual amino acids. Anabolism is a type of metabolic process in the body that builds up complex molecules from simpler ones. It generally requires energy, which is derived from catabolism, the process that breaks down complex molecules into simpler ones. Therefore, anabolism and catabolism are parts of the larger metabolic process in an organism.
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Impression materials that have mechanical properties permitting considerable elastic deformation but that return to their original form are classified as:
Answer:
Elastomeric
Explanation:
An elastomer is a polymer whose main characteristic is elasticity and can even recover its shape after being deformed
The chemical composition of an elastomer is the grouping of thousands of molecules called monomers, which join together forming huge chains. These large chains of polymers are those that give elasticity since they are flexible and are intertwined in a very messy way.
When an elastomer is stretched, its molecules align, allowing many times to take a crystalline appearance. However, upon releasing the tension, it immediately returns to its original state of elastic disorder. The above distinguishes elastomers from plastic polymers.
A rigorous scientific process used to combine findings from research (usually randomized controlled trials) into a powerful and clinically useful report to guide practice is known as a systematic review. Standard components of a systematic review to consider are: (Select all that apply.)
a. process for initiating.
b. standard reporting format.
c. reliability and validity of data.
d. process for synthesizing the body of evidence.
e. process for finding and assessing individual studies.
Answer: Options A, B, D and E.
A. Process for initiating.
B. standard reporting format.
D. process for synthesizing the body of evidence.
E. process for finding and assessing individual studies.
Explanation:
Systematic review is a scientific process which combines findings from research using random sampling of works from different source of a particular subject and integrating them into a powerful and clinically useful report to guide practice. It is a form of paradigm that guides and aids further research in a particular field.
However, there are components to be considered in other to create a perfect resolution. Initiation of the process begins with gathering of research from different source.
Then, individual research work is also accessed to derive facts and putting up a standard report to explain the total discovery.
A relationship between a male and female living in a pair bond for an extended period of time is called __________.
A. polygyny
B. one-male polygyny
C. monogamy
D. polyandry
Answer:
C. monogamy
Explanation:
Polygyny : It is defined as a pattern of mating in which a male has more than one female mate i-3 two or more women share a common husband.
One-male polygyny : It is defined as the mating system in which one male lives with multiple females and also mates with them but each of the female mates only with a single male.
Monogamy** : It is defined as practice of marrying or state of being married to one person at a time i-e having a sexual relationship with only one partner and the habit of living with one mate at a time.
Polyandry : It is basically a polygyny in which a woman has more than one husbands.
As in the above scenario, only option C matches the required credentials.
Hence option C) Monogamy is the right answer.
Nearly all cells in an organism contain identical DNA, and each DNA strand may contain hunndreds or thousands of individual genes. Is it likely that a cell would transcribe all the genes within its nucleus simultaneously.
A. True
B. False
Nearly all cells in an organism contain identical DNA, and each DNA strand may contain hundreds or thousands of individual genes. It is likely that a cell would transcribe all the genes within its nucleus simultaneously.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
B. False
Explanation:
All the cells present in the bodies of the multicellular organisms are derived from the zygote and therefore carry identical DNA. However, cells are differentiated to perform specific functions. Also, cells may perform different functions at different times depending upon the need of the body. So, all the genes present in the DNA of a cell are not expressed simultaneously. Cells only express the genes whose protein products are required at that time.
For example, genes required for secretion and release of insulin in the endocrine cells of the pancreas would be expressed only when the blood glucose levels are higher.
One of the most common causes of acute pain is a. trigeminal neuralgia. b. malignancy. c. headache. d. fibromyalgia.
Answer: Headache
Explanation:
The most common cause of the acute pain is headache. It can be specific or non specific.
The pain in the head can be caused due to any of the reason. It can a normal headache due to be being hungry for a longer period of time.
It can be a migraine pain, it can be pain due to tumor in the brain. There can be pain due to some injury.
Final answer:
The most common cause of acute pain among the given options is a headache, specifically tension headaches, which are due to muscle tension and stress.
Explanation:
One of the most common causes of acute pain is c. headache.
A headache is characterized by continuous pain in the head or neck area and can be caused by various factors including sinus inflammation, migraines, and tension. Tension headaches, which are often due to muscle tension in the shoulders, neck, and head, particularly during stress, account for about 42% of all headaches globally. They are the most common type and are experienced by well over one-third of the population in the United States annually. Factors such as stress can cause muscles to tighten, leading to the pain felt during a tension headache. Mild pain relievers like ibuprofen may help manage the pain.
Your lab microscope is "parfocal." What does this mean?
A - the specimen is clearly is focus at this depth.
B - the slide should be almost in focus when changing to higher magnifications
C - you can easily discriminate two close objects as separate
Answer: The correct answer is that the specimen is clearly is focus at this depth.
Explanation:
A 'parfocal' microscope has the specimen to be viewed in focus, and easily viewed from the angles of several lenses positionally directed on it.
Thus, you NEED NOT move the specimen or slide to have the best view.
The term 'parfocal' refers to a feature of a microscope which allows the specimen to remain in focus when switching between different magnification levels.
Explanation:When a microscope is described as 'parfocal', it means that the microscope keeps the specimen in focus even as you switch between different objectives with varying magnifications. Typically, on a parfocal microscope, if your specimen image is focused at low power, you should be able to rotate to the next objective lens and have the specimen remain almost perfectly in focus. Thus, the correct answer is option B - the slide should be almost in focus when changing to higher magnifications.
This feature is particularly useful as it reduces the need for constant refocusing and allows you to analyze your specimen at different levels of detail without losing the focused image. It's a characteristic common in many laboratory and research microscopes.
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Explain three unique ways fungi are different from other microbes (algae, protozoans, bacteria and archaea).
Answer:1) Fungi is a Eukaryotes
2) fungi possess hyphae
3) most fungi are not mobile
Explanation: Fungi is multicellular have a well developed cell structure which comprises of organelles where as other microbes are mostly unicellular and prokaryotes.
Fungi does not move but other microbes process structures for movement and can move
A student received a flu shot in the fall. During the flu season, the student caught a cold. The most likely reason the vaccine he received did not prevent the cold was that:________.
a. his illness was not caused by a pathogen
b. he did not get the vaccine at the right time of year
c. his body produced antibiotics in response to the vaccine
d. the vaccine he received contained only flu virus antigens
Answer:
d. the vaccine he received contained only flu virus antigens
Explanation:
Vaccine imparts immunity to the person by providing them the preformed antibodies or the weakened antigens. Flu shots carry the antigens of the flu virus (the influenza virus) and trigger the formation of memory cells against this virus. The presence of memory cells against the flue virus antigens makes the person immune to flu after vaccination.
However, cold is caused by a different virus (rhinovirus mainly) that have antigens distinct from that of the flu virus antigens. Therefore, a person vaccinated with flu shots would not have the memory cells or the preformed antibodies against the cold virus. This person can catch a cold when infected with the respective virus.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
There are many different types of the flu and there are many different types of illnesses. Meaning that the vaccine could have only killed one strand of the flu or the student got a different type of sickness.
how do the characteristics of shale change with increased pressure and temperature?
Answer: Shale changes into Slate.
Explanation:
Shale is a sedimentary rock, formed by the deposition and compression of clay and silt.
Shale layers is buried deep into the earth through the process of deposition (i.e the laying down of rock forming material by natural entities like glaciers, wind, and water).
Temperatures and pressures rise greatly because the shale’s layers are buried. When the temperatures and pressures become higher. The shale is changed into a metamorphic rock (with dark brown streak), called Slate.
Final answer:
Shale changes under increased pressure and temperature during metamorphism, becoming denser, harder, and ultimately transforming into metamorphic rocks such as schist, with the original bedding obscured and the presence of new minerals aligned perpendicular to pressure.
Explanation:
When shale is exposed to increased pressure and temperature conditions, it undergoes a metamorphic transformation. Temperature and confining pressure play significant roles in altering the rock's characteristics. As the temperature rises, the energy of the shale's minerals increases, resulting in increased atomic vibrations and potential atom swapping within the crystal lattice. This process can lead to the formation of new minerals and changes in the rock's chemical equilibrium.
With an increase in pressure, especially confining pressure, the rock becomes denser and harder. This results in textural changes such as the realignment of mica crystals in the direction perpendicular to the main stress, a characteristic commonly seen when shale metamorphoses into schist. Additionally, the original sedimentary bedding of shale becomes difficult to distinguish after it has been significantly altered by heat and pressure.
Through this metamorphic process, shale can recrystallize and form different types of metamorphic rocks, such as hornfels or schist, depending on factors like the rock strength and the presence of chemically reactive fluids. Over time, increased depth within the Earth's crust introduces high pressure and temperature, which lead to various degrees of metamorphism, ultimately changing the characteristics and appearance of the original shale rock.
The registered nurse is teaching the nursing process in psychiatric mental health nursing to a group of student nurses. Which statement made by the registered nurse needs correction?
Answer:
The healthy individual should be fit physically, mentally as well as socially. The mental health related problems can destroy the thinking power of an individual and can lead to stress and depression as well.
The proper and specialize psychiatric mental health nursing is required for the treatment of the individual. The statement that nursing diagnosis is done according to the client and family needs correction because the diagnosis depends on the health of the patient.
After teaching nursing students about childhood exanthems, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify what as the primary cause?
Answer:
The correct answer is - viruses.
Explanation:
Most of the exanthems that occur in childhood are due to viruses such as adenovirus, measles, chickenpox and many others including various herpes infections.
These exanthems are very normally common in general but appearance could be different. Viral exanthems are major cause of the childhood exanthems these are appeared to pink or red skin patch over various and large part of body.
Thus, the correct answer is - viruses.
The tendency to apply one's own cultural values in judging the behavior and beliefs of people raised in other cultures is known as
A. cultural relativism.
B. cultural universalism.
C. ethnocentrism.
D. egocentrism.
E. cultural anthropology.
Answer: The correct answer is ethnocentrism
Explanation:
An estimation of the worth of other people way of life based on ONLY your own perspective or better still cultural understanding of what to wear, how to greet, how or what to eat etc, that you are familiar with is referred to as ETHNOCENTRISM.
An nursing informatics specialist is planning to record her lecture for an in-service program and then upload it to a secure website. Participants in the in-service program are instructed to view the presentation before attending the in-person part of the program. The specialist hopes that viewing the presentation beforehand will stimulate a more involved question-and-answer discussion. Which software would the participants most likely use to view the presentation?
Answer: Google Drive
Google drive is a soft ware that allows users to store files; synchronized and accessed the files from simple devices (mobile and desktop); and share them with team members for viewing.
The administrator panel on the interface enabled the user to control the file sharing, monitor how the user shares the files, and protect against data loss.
It also enables the administrator to edit the files in real time events, and give rooms for other user to pass comments on the uploaded files
Media files, documents, slides can be stored and view by the media player and other software of the accessing devices
Therefore it is an ideal software for the Informatics nurse to use to enables the participant to peruse the presentation before the real session.
Explanation:
Select all of the examples that represent biological evolution.
1. Horses that get more exercise become stronger and will have foals that are stronger.
2. The number of individuals with the type O blood genotype increases in a small human population due to a reduction in population size.
3. One species from the mainland diverges into two distinct species on a group of islands.
4. Individuals in a population exposed to high levels of ultraviolet light become blind as adults and will have offspring that are also blind.
5. The frequency of the gene for sickle-cell anemia in a human population decreases from 0.002% to 0.001%.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option 2, 3, and option 5.
Explanation:
Biological evolution is the change in genetic level of an individual population that is developed or inherit over a period of time and several generations. Changes can be minute, large, can be identified or not noticeable.
In the given question some of the examples of biological evolution are given such as O genotype individuals increases due to the reduction in population size in the small human population, similarly, one species diverged into two different species on the basis of the adaption they developed in island. Sickle cell anemia frequency is also is an important example of the as it decreases over time.
Thus, the correct answer is - option 2, 3, and option 5.
Out of the provided scenarios, the representation of biological evolution can be identified in the instances where the type O blood genotype increases in a population due to genetic drift, one species on a mainland diverges into two species on an island, and the frequency of the sickle-cell anemia gene decreases in a population. So the correct option is 2,3 and 5.
Explanation:The question asks us to identify examples that represent biological evolution. Biological evolution is defined as a change in the genetic composition of a population over time due to processes such as natural selection, mutation, genetic drift, and gene flow.
Horses that get more exercise become stronger and will have foals that are stronger - this is not an example of biological evolution because it describes acquired characteristics, not genetic changes passed on to offspring.The number of individuals with the type O blood genotype increases in a small human population due to a reduction in population size - this could represent evolution through genetic drift, especially if the population reduction leads to the founder's effect or a genetic bottleneck.One species from the mainland diverges into two distinct species on a group of islands - this is an example of allopatric speciation, a process of evolution.Individuals in a population exposed to high levels of ultraviolet light become blind as adults and will have offspring that are also blind - unless the blindness is due to a genetic mutation passed on to the offspring, this is not an example of evolution, rather an example of an environmentally induced condition.The frequency of the gene for sickle-cell anemia in a human population decreases from 0.002% to 0.001% - this represents evolution as there is a change in allele frequency in the population.Thus, instances 2, 3, and 5 would be the examples of biological evolution.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in that they both __________; however, they are different in that only chloroplasts, and not mitochondria, __________.
Answer: produce energy; photosynthesize
Explanation:
Mitochondria and Chloroplast are similar because both are cellular organelles involved in ENERGY PRODUCTION:
- Chloroplasts in green plants, due to its membrane containing chlorophyll molecules produces energy during photosynthesis
- Mitochondria in animal cells produces energy in form of ATP during lipid oxidation occuring in its membrane.
However, both organelles DIFFER in that ONLY CHLOROPLAST allows photosynthesis in its membrane, unlike Mitochondria
4. What do you think would happen to the intended protein if there were a DNA mutation whereby
one of the nitrogen bases (A, T, G, C) were replaced by a different one?
Some different proteins will be produced from the gene.
Explanation:When one of the nitrogen bases of a DNA is replaced by another, the phenomenon is called a point mutation. This condition actually is a mutation because, a gene translates into a protein through the mRNA. Now the DNA transcribes into a mRNA. If one of the nitrogen bases are changed in DNA, it will lead to change in the corresponding base of mRNA too. So the codon of which the changed nitrogen base is a part of, also changes which now codes for a different amino acid. So the protein structure also changes.
This condition is actually seen in sickle cell anaemia, where the 6th amino acid of haemoglobin changes from glutamic acid to valine, and the RBC structure becomes sickle celled owing to a hydrogen bond between valine and other amino acids.
Final answer:
A DNA mutation where one nitrogen base is replaced by another, known as a substitution mutation, might not change the protein if the amino acid remains the same (silent mutation). However, if it results in a different amino acid (missense mutation) or a stop codon (nonsense mutation), it could significantly impact the structure and function of the protein.
Explanation:
When a DNA mutation occurs that results in the replacement of one of the nitrogen bases (A, T, G, C) with a different one, this is known as a substitution mutation. The consequences of such a mutation on the intended protein primarily depend on whether the mutation leads to a change in an amino acid that is encoded by the affected DNA segment. Since the genetic code is degenerate, meaning that some amino acids are encoded by more than one codon, it's possible that a substitution might not change the amino acid sequence of the protein (silent mutation). However, if a different amino acid is encoded (missense mutation), this could alter the protein's structure and functionality. In more severe cases, if the mutation results in a stop codon (nonsense mutation), it could lead to the premature termination of protein synthesis, generating a truncated, often nonfunctional protein.
An example of how a seemingly small change can have significant effects is the substitution mutation in the hemoglobin gene that leads to sickle-cell anemia. Here, a single base change causes a different amino acid to be incorporated into the hemoglobin protein, drastically affecting its function and shape.
When you eat a hamburger, some of the energy in the food is converted to ATP that your cells can use to do all kinds of work, some of the energy is stored for later use, and some of the energy is dissipated as heat. The amount of energy before and after eating the hamburger is the same. This illustrates the:
Complete question:
When you eat a hamburger, some of the energy in the food is converted to ATP that your cells can use to do all kinds of work, some of the energy is stored for later use, and some of the energy is dissipated as heat. The amount of energy before and after eating the hamburger is the same. This illustrates the:
a. the cell theory.
b. the theory of evolution.
c. the central dogma.
d. the second law of thermodynamics.
e. the first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
e. the first law of thermodynamics.
Explanation:
The first law of thermodynamics is about the fact that the creation and destruction of energy are not possible. During any biological or other processes, one form of energy can be converted into another form. But the total amount of energy before and after the process remains the same. In the given example, the part of the energy of a hamburger is used to perform functions, the part is stored in tissues and rest is lost as heat. However, the total energy content remains the same. This represents the first law of thermodynamics.
a 26-year old g1p0 woman with last menstrual period 13 weeks ago presents to your office for her first prenatal visit. she reports vaginal spotting for the last two days. you perform an ultrasound that shows an intrauterine pregnancy consistent with 11 weeks gestation with no cardiac activity.?
Answer:
It means that a miscarriage (specifically a MISSED MISCARRIAGE) had occured.
EXPLANATION:
A miscarriage is defined as the spontaneous loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks of gestation.
Types:
A. SPONTANEOUS ABORTION: The spectrum of spontaneous abortion includes:
-Complete Miscarriage: Here the uterus is empty. All pregnancy tissues have been expelled from the body.
-Incomplete miscarriage: Some tissue or placental material still remains in the body. On ultrasound, retained products of conception are seen.
-Missed miscarriage: The embryo dies intrauterine, uterine size is equal to or less than gestational age, cervix is closed and pregnancy symptoms start to regress.
-Threatened miscarriage: Bleeding and abdominal cramps point to a possible miscarriage.
The cervical os is closed.
-Inevitable miscarriage: The cervical os is open. The presence of bleeding, cramping, and cervical dilation indicates that a miscarriage is inevitable.
-Septic miscarriage: Ultrasound finding is retained products of conception.
Symptoms may include Fever, chills and rigor, abdominal pain, prolonged bleeding or foul-smelling vaginal discharge.
B. INDUCED MISCARRIAGE
-Legal/Therapeutic
-Illegal/Criminal
A 26-year-old woman showing an 11-week intrauterine pregnancy with no heartbeat likely indicates a miscarriage, requiring further evaluation. Implantation bleeding could explain spotting after 3 weeks from the last menstrual period, whereas pitocin is used to induce labor in a post-term pregnancy.
Explanation:The presentation of this 26-year-old G1P0 woman, who is 13 weeks post menstrual period with an ultrasound showing an intrauterine pregnancy at 11 weeks with no cardiac activity, could indicate a missed abortion or miscarriage. Spotting and the lack of a detectable heartbeat are significant findings. In a normal pregnancy, cardiac activity is usually visible on an ultrasound by 6 weeks gestation. The discrepancy between the menstrual history and ultrasound findings might be due to a delayed miscarriage, where the fetal demise occurs but is not immediately followed by the expulsion of the pregnancy tissue. It's essential for the healthcare provider to further evaluate and manage the situation, often with follow-up ultrasounds, HCG level monitoring, and discussions regarding possible medical or surgical management of the miscarriage.
Regarding the provided case scenarios, the brief episode of cramping and bleeding approximately 3 weeks after the last menstrual period is often due to implantation bleeding, which is when the embryo attaches to the uterine wall. The woman who experiences mid-cycle pain after unprotected sex has a valid concern about pregnancy as ovulation is taking place, which increases the chance of fertilization. Furthermore, the administration of pitocin in the 41-week pregnant woman is due to induction of labor as the pregnancy is post-term and labor is not progressing.