Answer:
Law of independent assortment
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel was attributed for discovering the principles that governs heredity. He performed experiments and observed the results in order to come up with this principles. One of these principles, which he called Law of Independent assortment, was discovered when he performed an experimental cross on pea plants using two observable traits i.e. dihybrid cross because it involved two genes encoding each trait.
In his law of independent assortment, he stated that a pair of allele of one gene separated into gametes independently of the other pair of allele for another gene. This means that the separation of the two alleles in a gene does not affect the separation of alleles in the other gene. Mendel got a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 when he performed the dihybrid cross, which is what one would normally expect if each allele get separated independently to produce four possible combination of gametes in each parent.
"In experiments using T2 viruses to discern the genetic material, certain elements were radioactively labeled. Which radioactive material in T2 viruses was found in bacteria?
Answer:
Phosphorus-32
Explanation:
Alfred D. Hershey and Martha Chase radiolabelled phosphorus as 32P and sulfur as 35S. This was done to observe if the radio labeled sulfur-containing protein coat or the radio-labeled P containing DNA enters the host cell. They showed that when the bacterial virus T2 infects Escherichia coli cells, the radioactive phosphorus-containing DNA of the viral particle enters the host cells. The host cells do not show the radio-labeled sulfur-containing protein of the viral coat. This proved that DNA, not the proteins is the genetic material.
Every sensory neuron is a (an) ______ to the central nervous system, and every motor neuron is a(an) ______ from the central nervous system.
Answer:
Every sensory neuron is a (an) stimuli to the central nervous system, and every motor neuron is a(an) transmitter from the central nervous system.
A scientist wants to perform a test that will indicate whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA. Testing for the presence of which of the following is most appropriate in this situation?
The options are :
A) phosphate
B) nitrogen
C) guanine
D) uracil
E) thymine
Answer:
The correct answer is E) thymine
Explanation:
DNA and RNA are both made up of nucleotide. There are two major difference between DNA and RNA. In DNA deoxyribose sugar is present and in RNA ribose sugar is present.
The other difference is in DNA thymine nucleotide is present which makes complementary base pairing with adenine but in RNA thymine is replaced by uracil.
Therefore testing for the presence of thymine is most appropriate in this situation to find out whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA.
Final answer:
To determine whether a nucleic acid sample is RNA or DNA, scientists can test for the presence of the sugar ribose or deoxyribose and the base uracil or thymine. Techniques like southern and northern blotting along with nucleic acid probes are utilized to detect specific sequences indicative of RNA or DNA.
Explanation:
A scientist determining whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA should test for the presence of the sugar ribose or deoxyribose, as these sugars are indicative of RNA and DNA, respectively. Additionally, the presence of the base uracil is characteristic of RNA, while thymine is found in DNA. RNA can easily be distinguished from DNA by testing for uracil, which is not present in DNA.
Methods such as southern and northern blotting are used to detect specific sequences in DNA and RNA samples respectively. For DNA, nucleic acid hybridization or polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to detect a specific sequence. In the case of RNA, sequencing techniques involve nucleotide-specific cleavage with RNases.
Finally, using nucleic acid probes is another method to distinguish between DNA and RNA. These probes will only bind to nucleic acid samples containing sequences complementary to the probes. Since uracil is unique to RNA, a probe targeting uracil-containing sequences would confirm the presence of RNA in the sample.
True or False: Meiosis halves the chromosome number, whereas mitosis maintains the same chromosome number.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Meiosis is the kind of cell division that results in the production of daughter cells with each cell having half number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Meiosis is the cell division employed by reproductive cells to produce gametes/sex cells. Meiosis occurs in two stages i.e. Meiosis I and II. The chromosome number reduces by half in gametes in order to ensure that after fertilization of both male and female gamete, the resulting organism has the correct set of chromosomes. e.g diploid organism produces haploid gametes which fuses to produce a diploid organism again.
Mitosis is another type of cell division that results in identical daughter cells. They are identical in the sense that they possess the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell that divided. For example, a diploid cell undergoes mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells.
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A geyser erupts when pressure is released from a hot spring.
True or False?
A geyser erupts when pressure is released from a hot spring -True
Mark as BrainliestAnswer: this is true
Explanation: When the surface water reaches boiling point, it errupts and cool down when boiling point becomes low.
Transmission of information along the axon takes place via an electrochemical process called the _____.
Answer: Neurotransmission
Explanation:
The transfer of the information from one neuron to another takes place through the release of the chemical substances from the axon of one neuron to the dendrite of another via synaptic junction.
The chemicals that is transferred between two neurons is known as neurotransmitter and the process is known as neurotransmission.
The brain consists of multiple neurons and this is how the information is transferred across the brain and body.
If an ethical hacker breaks the limit placed upon a test, there may be sufficient cause for a client to take legal action against the ethical hacker.A. true
B. false
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Ethics is the moral psychology or philosophy that are used to determine the write or wrong things. The ethics is used in all the subjects and in all the services.
The ethical hacker may be defined as the individual that has hacked the information or break the rules that are against the ethics or moral value. The legal actions must be taken against the ethical hacker so that the ethics cannot be violated next time.
Thus, the correct answer is true.
Vitamins are specific organic compounds that are required in the diet to aid in digestion of :__________
a) proteins.
b) provide essential amino acids.
c) prevent deficiency diseases.
d) provide fiber
Answer:
c) prevent deficiency diseases.
Explanation:
Vitamins are essential and specific organic compounds that are required mainly in the diet to facilitate the digestion of protein, however, they are not categorized with amino acids and as such they can't provide essential amino acid.
Vitamins are categorized into fat soluble vitamins(A,D,E and K) and water soluble vitamins (B anc C). Vitamins provides several to hundred of roles, majorly they helps to prevent deficiency diseases. Few of their roles are:
Vitamin A helps to prevent blindness. Food sources to obtain vitamin A include spinach, cod liver oil etc.
Vitamin D helps to maintain skeletal structure due to the calcium content embedded in Vitamin D. Therefore, lack of vitamin D can cause rickets.
Vitamin B-complexes e.g B-1 (thiamin) helps in synthesis of certain hormones, B-2 (riboflavin) which asssists in breakdown of fats and energy production. It can be gotten from Milk, youghurt etc. Deficiency in these vitamin B-complexes can cause heart-related disease, skin disorders, anemia etc.
What will occur if solution A containing 400 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute is separated by a biological membrane from solution B containing 600 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute?
Answer:
The volume of solution B will increase
Explanation:
In a non-penetrating solute, there is denial of a solute to cross the cell membrane.This implies that the solute will not be able to cross the cell membrane. So if the biological membrane is serving as a partition between a solution A containing 400 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute and a solution B containing 600 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute, The volume of solution B will increase.
A student discovers a mat of green organisms living along the edge of a stream and suspects it is a moss. To confirm that this organism is a moss and not a green alga, he should look for _____.
Answer:
He should look out for tiny leaf-like structures which mosses possess but algae does not .
Explanation:
In general, moss looks fibrous, feathered or latticed when viewed up close. Carpets of moss are springy to the touch. When germinating, moss puts up thin stems sometimes with leaves on top and reproductive spores. Algae have no threadlike structures or leaves. Instead, algae spread as a clump of living cells. Because algae usually grow in wet environments, they look like a slimy, wet mass, often green in color. Both moss and algae may appear green or brown depending on species and the dryness of the conditions.
A patient's history, physical exam, and pulmonary function testing have culminated in a diagnosis of chronic obstructive bronchitis. The nurse who is providing care for this patient will understand that the effects of the disease are primarily attributable to:A. A reduction in oxygen binding sites on erythrocytes
B. Decreased respiratory drive
C. Autoimmune of alveoli
D. Chronic mucus hypersecretion
Answer:
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
The chronic obstructive bronchitis is characterized by irreversible and persistent flow obstruction, followed by bronchial inflammation, in response to harmful particles or gases (biomass) exposure. There is an increase in the secretory glands and cells in the submucosa, which causes chronic mucus hypersecretion, which leads to the overproduction of mucus and the production of a particularly thick mucus, aggravated by a bad and inefficient ciliary cleaning function and a cough not treated properly, it weakens the respiratory muscles. The damage in chronic bronchitis is due to excess mucus production, with mucoiciliary dysfunction, secondary to persistent bronchial inflammation. The main responsible for this excessive mucus are the overproduction of secretion originated in the cells and the decrease in the elimination of said mucus.
Which of these statements about the afferent division of the nervous system is true?It ascends with sensory information.It descends with motor information.It descends with sensory information.It ascends with motor information.
It ascends with sensory information.
Explanation:
The peripheral nervous system has two parts: Efferent division and the afferent division.The afferent division of the nervous system consists of the sense organs and sensory nerves.The efferent division consists of the motor nerves and the effector organs.The afferent division is thus, concerned with reception of sensory stimulus and directing the nerve impulse to the mixed nerves.The efferent division is concerned with receiving the impulse from the mixed nerves and directing it towards the effector organ to produce a suitable response to the stimulus.In many hairy vertebrates, such as apes, dogs, and rats, the involuntary erection of hair acts as an efficient means of thermoregulation. The erect hairs trap an insulating layer of air against the skin, keeping the animal warm. Humans also display hair erection when cold, though humans are not hairy enough for this reflex to have a significant effect on body temperature. Which statement is true regarding this reflex?
1) It reflects the common ancestry of humans with hairy vertebrates.
2) It suggests humans are less evolved than other hairy vertebrates, because they are not adapted to maintain body temperature.
3) The loss of hairy bodies is an evolutionary disadvantage to humans.
4) The reflex is actually a voluntary response humans manifest during infancy.
Answer:
It reflects the common ancestry of humans with hairy vertebrates.
Explanation:
Evolution is the change in the species with the passage of time. Some species might get extinct and some species might develop the advance character during the evolutionary process.
The evolutionary history of the organisms can be classified on the basis of the paleontological or molecular evidence. The two groups of the organisms can share a common ancestor if they have some similar features with each other. In the given question, it can be concluded that hairy vertebrates and human might have the common ancestor.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Broccoli, cabbages, and brussels sprouts all descend from the same wild mustard and can still interbreed. These varieties were produced by
Answer: Artificial selection
Explanation:
Artificial selection is the process of intentional breeding of plants or animals by selecting the parents with good features so as to produce new plants that have the qualities of both parents.
Wild cabbage was the uncultivated form of Brassica oleracea. It was chosen a parent plant for growing broccoli, brussel sprouts and cabbage by artificial selection. The variety was chosen to produce plants with large flower buds, edible stems and large leaves through artificial selection.
Broccoli, cabbages, and Brussels sprouts are descendents of the wild mustard plant and were cultivated through selective breeding to produce distinct varieties.
Explanation:Broccoli, cabbages, and Brussels sprouts are all descendents of the same wild mustard plant, Brassica oleracea. These varieties were produced through selective breeding by humans over thousands of years. By selecting and breeding plants with desired traits, such as larger flower buds for Brussels sprouts or compact rosettes for cabbage, humans were able to create these distinct vegetables.
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True or false: During meiosis, two rounds of DNA synthesis are required to form four gametes from one parent cell.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
During meiosis two round of cell division occurs after the replication which allow the formation of four haploid cells. Meiosis takes place in gametic cells.
During the first round of meiotic cell division, the homologous chromosome gets separated into two daughter cell and during the second round of meiotic cell division, each sister chromatids gets separated into two new daughter cells.
So during meiosis two round of cell division takes place not two round of replication takes place. Therefore the statement is false.
The claim that two rounds of DNA synthesis are required during meiosis is false; only one round of DNA replication occurs before meiosis I, followed by a second division in meiosis II, resulting in four haploid gametes from one parent cell.
Explanation:The statement that two rounds of DNA synthesis are required during meiosis to form four gametes from one parent cell is false. In meiosis, there is only one round of DNA replication before the first division, known as meiosis I. This is followed by a second round of division, meiosis II, which does not involve further DNA synthesis. The process of meiosis starts with a diploid cell, which after DNA replication, divides twice to produce four haploid gametes, each genetically unique.
Human sperms are indeed haploid, meaning they have half the number of chromosomes of a diploid body cell. Sister chromatids do not separate during meiosis I; instead, they separate during meiosis II. In meiosis I, it is the homologous chromosomes that separate. After a single cell completes meiosis, four cells are produced.
As a leading microbiologist during the 1800s, _______disproved the theory of_______and completed several studies leading to the germ theory of disease.
Answer:
Pasteur disproved the theory of abiogenesis
Explanation:
Louis Pasteur was the scientist who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation. Pasteur disproved the theory of abiogenesis by using swan-necked flask. He used two swan-necked flask in which media was present and he heated the media to sterile it.
Then he broke the neck of one flask and observed that after some time the broth in broken neck flask showed growth but the unbroken necked flask remained sterile.
So he concluded that flask with swan-necked do not allowed microbe and air passed to the media while air can easily pass to media in broken neck flask which allowed microbe to grow.
He also gave germ theory of disease which says that disease is caused by microorganisms.
A scientist, who wants to study the effects of nitrogen on wheat plant growth, sets up an experiment with 4 groups of wheat plants: group A gets 20 pounds per acre, group B gets 40 pounds per acre, group C gets 60 pounds per acre, and group D gets 0 pounds per acre. What is the dependent variable? Select one: C A. the weight of the plants at the end of the experiment B. the amount of sunlight the plants were exposed to C. the temperature the plants were grown in D. the amount of nitrogen given to the plants x ©
Answer:
The weight of the plants at the end of the experiment.
Explanation:
Since the experiment was set up to study the growth of the wheat plants, weight is a sign of growth. So at the end of the experiment, the weight of the plant will be compared to the amount of nitrogen added.
If a graph is to be plotted, the amount of nitrogen (independent variable) will be on the x-axis and the weight of the plants (dependent variable) will be on the y-axis.
The amount of sunlight and temperature are not included because the question does not say that they are parameters in the experiment.
Destructive waves erode the coastline in a number of ways. Identify the term that describes when air becomes trapped in joints and cracks on a cliff face and when the wave breaks, the trapped air is compressed which weakens the cliff and causes erosion.
Answer:
Hydraulic action
Explanation:
Coastal erosion poses a significant threat to both human life and aquatic wildlife species. As climatic phenomena become more common and glaciers continue to melt, causing sea levels to rise, erosion also becomes more prevalent and affect coastal ecosystems.
Hydraulic action is one the main types of coastal erosion. It occurs when the air is trapped inside the cracks and joints. Therefore, when waves break in the cliff, this trapped air becomes compressed, leading to the erosion of these parts of the coastline. This is extremely harmful as people that live near coastlines become unprotected from floods and storms.
In many cells, the adhesion to the extracellular matrix through integrins causes the activation of kinases in the cytoplasm. This suggests that:_______________.
Answer: There is presence of tumor.
Explanation: The adhesion of cells to extracellular matrix (EMC) through integrins ( cell-EMC binding molecules, which are collagens, laminins and fibronectin) causes the activation of kinases in the cytoplasm.
However, kinanes helps in controlling the epithelial cell differentiation and upholding the epithelial tissues. This is done by the addition of phosphate groups to a substrate protein which is termed Protein phosporylation. Then, the kinases direct the affairs of the cell and it's activities. For example, it determines the cell division, anabolic and catabolic activities of the cell, movement of ions between the cell and it's environment (signal transduction), protein functions and etc.
Conclusively, since the activities of the cell like cell division and protein functions is dictated by the kinase, reduction in cell division that gave rise to rapid growth is put on hold. Hence, the tumor is been suppressed.
Note: the binding of cell-EMC is regulated by Transforming Growth Factor (TGF) β.
Some pigs learned to pick up and deposit wooden coins in a piggy bank, but soon the pigs were more often dropping the coins and pushing them with their snouts. This best illustrates the concept of ________ in operant conditioning.a) Conditioned reinforcementb) latent learningc) generalizationd) biological predisposition
Answer:
Biological predisposition.
Explanation:
Operant conditioning may be defined as the form of the learning that are mainly associated with the punishments and rewards of an individual. John B. Watson introduces the concept of operant conditioning.
The learning of the pigs to pick the coins and its deposition in the bank is considered as rewarded with some conditions. The biological predisposition occurs in the memory of the pigs as this increases the likelihood works of the pigs.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Anaphylactic shock is the most severe form of systemic allergic reaction. Immunologically medicated substances are released into the blood, causing vasodilation and an increase in capillary permeability. What physiologic response often follows the vascular response in anaphylaxis?
a. Uterine smooth muscle reactionb. Laryngeal edemac. Broncodilationd. Gastrointestinal relaxation
Answer:
b. Laryngeal edema
Explanation
Laryngeal edema is a possible physiological response that will follow Anaphylactic shock. The Edema results to the decreased size of the laryngeal lumen.
It presents as respiratory difficulty or post extubation stridor which is presence of inspiratory noise as a result of increased effort in breathing due to narrowing of the airway. Other symptoms include fainting and low blood pressure.
To enhance diagnostic specificity, DSM-5 replaced the previous "not otherwise specified" (NOS) designation with two options for clinical use: Other Specified [disorder] and Unspecified [disorder]. Which of the following statements about use of the Unspecified designation is true?
a. The Unspecified designation is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that criteria for a specific disorder were not met.
b. The Unspecified designation is used when there is no recognized Other Specified disorder (e.g. recurrent brief depressions, sexual aversion).
c. The Unspecified designation is used when the individual has fewer than three symptoms of any of the recognized disorders within the diagnostic class.
d. The Unspecified designation is used when the individual presents with symptomatology
of disorders in two or more diagnostic classes.
e. The Unspecified designation is used when the clinician believes the condition is of a
temporary nature.
Answer:
The statement that is true about unspecified designation is that the unspecified designation is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that criteria for a specific disorder were not met.
Explanation:
It is dependent on the conscience of the clinician whether or not to disclose and diagnosis before a solid evidence of the persistence of a specific disorder is obtained. The clinician is not bound to make a disclosure in case of an unspecified designation but he can also choose to give out some primary information.A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
Answer:
High-protein
Explanation:
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a disease in which there is obstruction of the lungs which makes it difficult for the person to breathe and there is an improper flow of the air in the respiratory tract. The disease management involves a proper diet which should have a high amount of proteins in it. A high protein diet is recommended for the patients as this leads to the strengthening of the muscles involved in the respiration and thus, avoids wasting and slows down the progressive worsening of the disease. Further, the high protein diet also helps to strengthen immunity and prevents infections of the respiratory tract. The proteins also provide more energy as sufferers of the disease also have difficulty performing activities such as walking, running, etc due to shortness of breath.Which of the following contributed to the current high prevalence of drug-resistant infectious diseases such at tuberculosis?
Options:
* Inappropriate supervision of treatment
* Delay in treatment
* Mutation of bacteria
* Virulence variation
* All of the listed choices are correct
Answer : All of the listed choices are correct
Explanation:
Phytoplankton use sunlight to gain energy through photosynthesis. As a result of the Law of Conservation of Energy, phytoplankton cannot gain more energy than it consumes. A closed system consisting of an aquarium, phytoplankton, and sunlight is set up. Which of the following methods would best demonstrate the Law of Conservation of Energy? (3 points)
A. Measure the mass and temperature of the water. Then cover the aquarium to block the sunlight and measure the mass of the phytoplankton.
B. Change the closed system to isolated, so that energy can move out of it. Then measure the amount of energy that leaves.
C. Measure the mass of the phytoplankton before and after photosynthesis. Add the mass of the water.
D. Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference
Answer: D: Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference.
Explanation: This will describe the law as the amount of energy leaving the system will be the same as measured before exposure to light.
The combination of dominant tree species in Eastern forests will likely change in the future. Some forest types, including spruce/fir and maple/beech/birch, may shrink significantly or disappear altogether, depending on how greatly carbon dioxide emissions increase in the future. How would you adapt your behavior to create a different scenario, one in which the was no substantial change in the tree species over time? Select the tactic that would be of NO help.
A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint.
B) Consider alternate energy resources that are not carbon-based: solar or wind energy.
C) Eat locally-produced and organic food; cur meat and dairy consumption.
D) Manage lands for restoration and watershed conservation.
Answer:
The tactic which will be of no help will be A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint.
Explanation:
Increasing demand for green products will require the cutting down of trees for meeting up the needs. Hence, lesser the trees, more will be the carbon dioxide as trees tend to take up carbon dioxide and use it in the process of photosynthesis.
Also, by using green products, our carbon footprint will not be reduced because the amount of carbon dioxide we release will remain the same. Hence, option A is the correct option.
The substantial change in the tree species over time A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint. Therefore , A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint is correct .
The relationship between the increasing demand for green products and the potential consequence of cutting down trees presents a complex environmental challenge.
While green products aim to reduce environmental impact, the production process and raw material extraction may counterintuitively contribute to deforestation, leading to a higher concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Trees play a crucial role in sequestering carbon dioxide through photosynthesis, a process that helps mitigate climate change by converting CO2 into oxygen.
Therefore, cutting down trees to meet the demand for resources may exacerbate the issue of rising carbon dioxide levels.
It's essential to carefully consider the sustainability of sourcing practices for green products to avoid inadvertently contributing to deforestation.
Furthermore, the claim that using green products does not reduce our carbon footprint needs clarification.
While it's true that some green products may still have associated carbon emissions in their production, transportation, and disposal, the overall environmental impact is often lower compared to conventional alternatives.
Adopting a comprehensive approach that includes sustainable sourcing, production, and disposal practices can contribute to a more significant reduction in carbon footprint, even if it may not eliminate it entirely.
Addressing the growing demand for green products requires a holistic and sustainable approach that considers the environmental impact throughout the product's life cycle.
Balancing this demand with the preservation of trees and mindful resource management is essential for mitigating the adverse effects on atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
According to Leech, the English of direct address advertising tends to be very homogeneous, so that all direct address voiceovers share many linguistic features ling.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A - True
Explanation:
According to Leech, it remains a generally accepted fact that the English of direct address advertising tends to be very homogeneous, so that all direct address voiceovers share many linguistic features ling.
So the answer is True.
According to Mathis Wackernagel, ecological overshoot is caused by an overuse of resources. Which of the following practices could contribute to ecological overshoot?1. Switching to renewable energy sources with lower CO2 emissions2. Recycling materials after they are used3. Catching fish more rapidly than the population can sustain4. Replanting trees as timber is harvested
Answer:
Option (3)
Explanation:
Ecological overshoot usually refers to the condition when the demand of the population within an ecosystem is higher than the capacity of the ecosystem to recycle and regenerate the available resources that have been extracted and obtained. This creates an imbalance in the ecosystem, as a result of which the overshoot occurs in the ecosystem.
From the given options, the catching of more number of fishes than the population requires, causes a dis-balance in the ecosystem, affecting the aquatic system where more fishes are being obtained. This results in ecological overshooting.
Thus, the correct answer is option (3).
What type of bonds are formed between nitrogenous bases of DNA?*
A. hydrogen bonds
B. glycolic bonds
C. james bonds
Answer: A. Hydrogen Bonds
100 POINTS!!! Help!!!
A series of coral reefs is located near a coastline. In 3–5 sentences, construct an argument about how people can help prevent erosion to the coastline.
Answer:
We can prevent erosion by not disturbing the coral reefs and help them build more near the coastline. The structure of the coral reefs helps to prevent the loss of life and it also prevents erosion. The coral reefs act as a barrier against the water flows such as waves or floods. In this way they prevent erosion by serving as natural barriers. Hence, erosion can be prevented if more coral reefs are allowed to grow near the coastline.
To prevent erosion to the coastline near coral reefs, people can avoid using harmful chemicals, implement sewage treatment systems, and create buffer zones of plants or sand dunes.
Explanation:In order to help prevent erosion to the coastline near the series of coral reefs, people can take several actions. First, they can avoid using harmful chemicals and pesticides in their gardens or farms that could contaminate the water and harm marine life. Second, implementing effective sewage treatment systems can prevent the discharge of untreated wastewater into the oceans. Third, creating buffer zones of plants or sand dunes can reduce the impact of waves and protect the coastline from erosion.