Answer:
Survivorship life.
Explanation:
Life insurance may be defined as the policies that provide the beneficiaries to the individual with the sum payments. This beneficiary is beneficial when the individual dies.
The survivorship life is a type of life insurance and the type of the variable life insurance of the policy that individually covers the two individual. This policy pays the death benefit to the individual beneficiary only after the death of the two people.
Thus, the answer is survivorship life.
Phil and Sarah's policy, which pays out only after both insured parties have died, is known as a survivorship or second-to-die life insurance policy. These policies are particularly useful in estate planning, offering financial protection and peace to heirs. The life insurance landscape also features innovative practices like life settlements, impacting costs and policy management.
Explanation:Phil and Sarah purchased a life insurance policy with both of them as insured parties. This type of policy, which pays out the death benefit only after the second person dies, is known as a survivorship or second-to-die life insurance policy. Survivorship policies are often used for estate planning purposes, allowing the remaining policy proceeds to cover estate taxes or provide for heirs without burdening the surviving spouse. Cash-value (whole) life insurance, one of the types of policies that can incorporate the survivorship feature, blends a death benefit with a savings element, accumulating value over time that the policyholder can use.
The life insurance sector has evolved with practices like life settlements, where policies are transferred to third parties who continue premium payments and collect benefits upon the death of the insured. This has impacted life insurance costs and practices significantly. Yet, the core purpose of life insurance is to offer financial protection and peace to the survivors of the insured, with some policies offering the flexibility of cash withdrawals or loans against the accrued cash value.
A retired contract administrator who enjoyed gardening sought medical attention for what appeared to be a sinus infection. He received antimicrobials but the conditioned worsened and he was experiencing severe painful spasms in his jaw. He admitted to injuring himself with a gardening tool while wearing sandals in the yard but did not seek medical attention for the wound. The man is likely experiencing?
Answer:
Tetanic contractions
Explanation:
This is when a there is a sustained contraction in a muscle by nerves innervating a muscle due to excessive stimulation from toxins produced by the tetanus bacteria
The retired man is likely suffering from Tetanus, also known as lockjaw. His foot injury while gardening without protective footwear would have exposed his foot to the soil, providing an entry point for the tetanus-causing bacteria, Clostridium tetani, to enter his body. Immediate medical attention is crucial in this case.
Explanation:The retired contract administrator who enjoyed gardening and later experienced worsening sinus infection symptoms and severe jaw spasms, despite being given antimicrobials, is likely suffering from a rare but serious disease known as Tetanus. Tetanus, also known as lockjaw, is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, commonly found in soil and manure. When there is a deep wound, this bacteria can enter the body and produce a nerve toxin that causes painful muscular contractions, particularly in the jaw and neck, which is the case with this man.
His recent injury while gardening without protective footwear would have exposed his foot to the soil, creating an entry point for the bacteria. Not seeking immediate medical attention for the wound potentially allowed the bacteria to enter his body and reproduce, leading to the onset of his symptoms.
It's vital to seek medical help as quickly as possible when tetanus is suspected, as it can be life-threatening. Treatment typically involves wound cleaning, antibiotics to kill the bacteria, and a tetanus antitoxin to neutralize the toxin that has not yet bound to nerve tissue.
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What home remedies are effective for mouth dryness and cough? (Select all that apply.)
a) Humidification of the environment
b) Swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash.
c) Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges
d) Adequate fluid intake
e) Administration of over-the-counter antihistamine
Answer: a). Humidification of the environment
c). Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges
d). Adequate fluid intake
Explanation:
Humidification of the environment: This will prevent the loss of water from the body by sweating and increasing the tendency of thirst. This can prevent the dryness of mouth and associated cough.
Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges: The sucking of candy or lozenges will likely to produce saliva in the mouth which will prevent dryness and associated cough.
Adequate fluid intake: This will fulfill the requirement of water in the body. Hence it will reduce dryness in the mouth and cough.
Effective home remedies for mouth dryness and cough include humidification of the environment, swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash, sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges, and adequate fluid intake.
Explanation:The home remedies that are effective for mouth dryness and cough include:
Humidification of the environment: Using a humidifier or taking a steamy shower can help moisturize the air and alleviate dryness in the mouth and throat.
Swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash: Gargling with a mouthwash that contains astringent ingredients like menthol or eucalyptol can provide temporary relief for cough and dryness.
Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges: These can help stimulate saliva production and soothe a dry throat.
Adequate fluid intake: Drinking plenty of water can help keep the mouth hydrated and alleviate dryness.
It is important to note that administration of over-the-counter antihistamine may not be an effective home remedy for mouth dryness and cough, as it may have drying effects instead. Consulting with a healthcare professional is recommended for proper treatment.
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______ transfers substances to the brain faster than when a drug is injected or swallowed.
A. Smoking
B. Eating
C. Inhalation
D. Snorting
Answer:
A. Smoking
Explanation:
Nicotine modifies the functioning of the brain, specifically acts on the nicotine cholinergic receptors that are part of the reward circuit, releasing dopamine, which is the neurotransmitter of motivation and reward. In addition, it does so very quickly, between only 10 to 15 seconds it is transported from the lungs to its receptors through the bloodstream. In fact, the fastest way to carry a substance to the brain is to smoke it, which generates much stronger effects of conditioned reinforcement. Tobacco is the drug that has the highest probability of dependence just by trying it once (32%).
Tobacco addiction is due, as we have already said, to the release of dopamine, specifically in the cerebral zone of the ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens), the so-called mesolimbic dopamine pathway, the reinforcement pathway and the brain's reward.
The two electrolytes most important in enabling nerves to respond to stimuli are sodium and_______.
a.phosphorus
b.iron
c.chloride
d.potassium
Answer:
Potassium
Explanation:
Potassium is a mineral and an electrolyte. It helps your muscles work, including the muscles that control your heartbeat and breathing. Potassium comes from the food you eat. Your body uses the potassium it needs. The extra potassium that your body does not need is removed from your blood by your kidneys.
Answer:
That would be D.potassium.
Which statement by the client leads the nurse to believe that the client needs additional instruction regarding the nasal decongestant?
"I will blow my nose before instilling the nasal spray."
"I will report any dizziness, drowsiness, or rapid pulse."
"I will drink 2,000 to 3,000 mL of fluid daily."
"I will use it only when I have nasal discharge."
Answer:
I will use it only when I have nasal discharge.
Explanation:
A nasal decongestant is a medication, and as such its instructions for use must be respected, since a treatment should not be abandoned before a certain number of days, nor can it fall into the overdose due to a massive use of it.
Which of the following is correctly matched to a stage of the Transtheoretical Model? a. Preparation stage: "Stress causes me to crave a cigarette, so I use yoga help me relax." b. Maintenance: "For the last year, my friends and I go golfing every Sunday instead of spending the day drinking beer at the pub." c. Contemplative: "The risk for exposure to chlamydia is highest in my age group, so chances are I am going to get it. There's nothing that I can do about it." d. All of the above are correct examples of the stage.
Answer:
B. Maintenance
Explanation:
"For the last year, my friends and I go golfing every Sunday instead of spending the day drinking beer at the pub."
The correct match to a stage of the Transtheoretical Model is option (b): 'Maintenance: For the last year, my friends and I go golfing every Sunday instead of spending the day drinking beer at the pub.' This statement describes an individual maintaining a behavior change for a year, which is indicative of the Maintenance stage.
Explanation:The Transtheoretical Model, also known as the Stages of Change model, characterizes behavior change as a progression through various stages. The correct answer is (b). The Maintenance stage is characterized by ongoing behavior modification and avoiding relapse. The example statement describes a scenario where an individual has maintained a behavior change for a year (replacing bar drinking with golfing), which is indicative of the Maintenance stage. The statements in options (a) and (c), do not correctly correlate with the stages of the Transtheoretical Model described.
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The prior medical conditions for which the applicant has received, or should have received, medical advice or treatment within a specified period before the effective date of a policy are called:_______
Answer:
The answer is "pre-existing conditions."
Explanation:
A pre-existing condition is a health condition or illness that existed before someone enters into an agreement or a contract, such as life insurance.
For life insurance companies, it is essential to know a person's pre-existing conditions because they do not wish to provide the coverage for such conditions. As you probably know, it is common that life insurance companies do not provide insurance to people who are terminally ill or about to die. This is the reason why they ask you to provide all necessary medical examinations before entering into the agreement.
However, once the specified period for the pre-existing condition's treatment has elapsed, the insurance company will have to cover the treatment.
If you do not have a commercial tourniquet available, what common device found on the ambulance be used as a substitute?
A) Ice packs tied in place with triangle bandage
B) Air or vacuum splint
C) Blood pressure cuff
D) Use a rope tie-down to make a tourniquet
Answer:
c.
Explanation:
If a special tourniquet is not available, such as those that come in first aid kits, it is possible to improvise using soft, strong and flexible material, such as gauze, bandage, clothing or handkerchiefs, in order not to cause damage to the skin, making sure that the tourniquet has a minimum width of one inch to tighten.
Answer:
C. Blood pressure cuff.
Explanation:
A blood pressure cuff is used to take blood pressure. The cuff has an inflatable rubber bladder that is fastened around the arm.
Statistically speaking, smoking cigarettes is Group of answer choices
1. positively correlated with the use of illicit drugs
2. negatively correlated with the use of illicit drugs
3. related in an unknown fashion with illicit drugs
4. randomly related to the use of illicit drugs
Answer:
Statistically speaking, smoking cigarettes is positively correlated with the use of illicit drugs.
Explanation:
Illicit drugs are the substances that either stimulate, or create hallucinogenic effects or inhibit the nervous system. Due to its addictive nature and the threats it poses to the health of the user, its use has been reprimanded globally and have been illegalized. And, many surveys have shown that the use of these gateway drugs like LSD, tobacco, marijuana is common among smokers and drinkers.After several failed attempts at treating major depressive episodes over the years, Patrick contemplates undergoing ECT. He discusses this with his doctor, who warns him that ECT can lead to _____, which can last for at least 6 months after the procedure is completed.
Answer:
Memory loss
Explanation:
ECT (electroconvulsive therapy) is a medical treatment for people suffering from mental illnesses such as depression or bipolar. The therapy involves the neural stimulation through electrical shocks. This is done while a patient is under anesthesia, and this is used as a "last resort" treatment because of the many things that could go wrong.
A dangerous symptom that can arise from this treatment is memory loss.
Our memories are basically a sequence of certain neural impulses, such as seeing something, is converted to a neural impulse by the eye, so that it can be interpreted by the brain. Any foreign electrical impulse has the potential to overwrite those memories.
Women younger than 20 and older than 35 are both vulnerable to __________ during pregnancy.
Answer:
Hypertension
Explanation:
During pregnancy, there are lot of risks a female may encounter. Some factors have been identified to increase the chances of several medical complications arising during pregnancy. Age is one of those risk factors that increases the probability of complications to arise during pregnancy.
Research studies have identified hypertension to be one of the medical complications that are related to pregnancy. Age has been identified as a risk factor that increases a female chances of having hypertension during pregnancy. Women below age 20 and women above age 35 have been identified to have a significantly higher risk of developing hypertension .
When selecting a balance exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate progression?A. Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc.B. Floor, half foam roll, balance beam, balance disc, foam pad.C. Floor, foam pad, balance beam, balance disc, half foam roll.D. Floor, balance disc , foam pad, half foam roll, balance beam.
Answer:
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc.
Explanation:
Exercise and yoga are good for health. Exercise helps in increasing the oxygen level of the body, increases flexibility. This body's strength also increase by performing different exercise.
Balance exercise help in maintaining the confidence and balance at any stage of the life. The balance exercise requires the half foam roll, balance disc, foam pad, floor and the balance beam. This also helps in the maintenance of the life.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam bad, balance disc.
Before Justin's father remarried, Justin was responsible for mowing the grass, putting the dishes in the dishwasher, and doing his own laundry. Now that Kim has married into the family, Justin is not sure which of his responsibilities he should continue to do. Justin is experiencingA. boundary ambiguity.
B. boundary strain.
C. cognitive dissonance.
D. role discontinuity.
Answer:
I believe the answer is D, role discontinuity
Explanation:
Justin is not sure which of his responsibilities he should continue to do. Justin is experiencing role discontinuity.
Thus, The capacities and sort of function one plays in the present and the future are determined by one's health. Since maintaining health and aging only require adequate care of the mind and body, it is appropriate for everyone to do so at all ages.
Family constellation is a helpful indicator for retirement and for responding to changes in roles. When one retires, the shock of the role discontinuities is lessened since the family offers gainful alternatives, such as financial support, in addition to softening the impact.
Since one of the elements that secures an individual's outlook is income, there is a strong correlation between perceptions of retirement and responses to role discontinuities.
Thus, Justin is not sure which of his responsibilities he should continue to do. Justin is experiencing role discontinuity.
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How often should a healthcare facility that is Joint Commission accredited plan to test the emergency preparedness plan?
Answer:
In the United States, the joint commission is the one that regulates that hospitals have an emergency preparedness plan that is evaluated through drills or actual participation in a real event as a mininum two times per year.
One of the drills or events must include community-wide resources and an influx of actual or simulated patients to assess the ability of colaborative efforts and command structures.
Joint Commission-accredited healthcare facilities are required to test their emergency preparedness plan at least twice a year through tabletop exercises and full-scale exercises. The aim is to validate the emergency operations plan and refine it for actual emergencies. Additionally, these facilities must evaluate their plan annually for further improvement and adherence to safety standards.
Explanation:The Joint Commission, which accredits healthcare facilities, requires regular testing of emergency preparedness plans to ensure safety and readiness. While the student’s question touches on fire alarms tested monthly in a campus residence, the frequency of emergency preparedness testing for a Joint Commission-accredited healthcare facility is slightly different. Such facilities are required to conduct tabletop exercises at least twice a year, or one tabletop and one full-scale exercise that is either community-based or individual, unless the community-based exercise is not available. These are designed to validate the effectiveness of the emergency operations plan (EOP) and identify areas for improvement.
Moreover, if the full-scale exercise is not conducted due to an actual community disaster, the healthcare facility may use the event as an opportunity to test their EOP. In addition to these exercises, the Emergency Management standards require hospitals to evaluate their EOP annually. This ensures that any changes or improvements can be integrated into practice, allowing the facility to remain responsive and efficient in actual emergency situations.
How do cancer cells spread through the body?
a.Malignant tumors can invade nearby parts of the body.
b.The malignant cancer may also spread to more distant parts of the body through the lymphatic system or bloodstream.
c.This process is usually very difficult to treat and is a phase of cancer development called:
Answer: the correct option is B.
Explanation:. Cancer cells ( also called tumor) grow and divide at an abnormally rapid rate, they are poorly differentiated, and have abnormal membranes, cytoskeletal proteins, and morphology. The abnormality in cells can be progressive with a slow transition from normal cells to benign tumors to malignant tumors. The malignant cancer may also spread to more distant parts of the body through the lymphatic system or bloodstream.
True / False.
If you need to perform hand hygiene and do not have access to running water, using your personal anti-bacterial lotion is sufficient.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
It will help to remove the bacteria.
If you need to perform hand hygiene, utilizing an antibacterial lotion is already highly beneficial in avoiding potential illnesses if you do not have access to running water to disinfect your hands, hence this statement is true.
What is hygiene?Although hand washing with running water can assure that all sand, germs, and pollutants are effectively removed from the hands,
Antibacterial treatment is more efficient in eliminating bacteria and the majority of viruses on the surface of the body.
Antibacterial lotions have the ability to eliminate any germs that may be on your hands, but unlike water and soap, they are unable to clean your hands of pollutants and grime.
Therefore, do not have access to running water, using your personal anti-bacterial lotion is sufficient.
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The nurse is performing the initial assessment of a client in the emergency department.
Which statement by the client most strongly suggests domestic violence?
Signs of domestic violence in the emergency department are: 1. Marks or wounds on the body: they are evidence of physical attacks against the victim, usually the pacients lie about their origin. 2. Hostile or violent attitude towards health personnel: it occurs because of the abuse that they are subjected to. 3. Sense of guilt: during the interrogation they are usually blamed for the facts that involve the violent act. 4. Low weight: loss of appetite of the victim or deprivation of food by the offender. 5. Distraction: the victim focuses so much on his problem that he does not pay attention to external stimuli. 6. Costing nervousness: they lose control easily if an unexpected situation arises before them.
A list that provides specific details about what a food package contains is called:________
Answer:
The correct answer is- ingredient list
Explanation:
An ingredient list provides specific details about what is present in a food package. According to the FDA, all the food ingredients should be written in decreasing order of their weight present in packaged food.
This means that the ingredient that helps in making most of the product comes first which is followed by the next ingredient and so no. If any ingredient is made up of several ingredients then that is also included in the list below the main ingredient.
If any preservative is added then its function is described in the list. So the correct answer is the ingredient list.
The diet planning principle of ______describes consuming the right proportion of foods from each of the food groups and the appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals.
The diet planning principle that describes consumption of the right portion of foods from each of the food groups and appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals is referred to as balance. Balance promotes inclusion of varied nutrients in correct quantities, supporting overall health.
Explanation:The diet planning principle that describes consuming the right proportion of foods from each of the food groups, as well as the appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals is known as balance.
Balance means including different food items from each food group into your daily diet to meet nutritional needs. This concept promotes not only the inclusion of nutrients from each category, but also moderation in quantities to prevent over or under-consumption. Balanced diet supports achieving and maintaining a healthy weight, reducing the risk of chronic diseases, and promoting overall health.
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Describe several guidelines for saying no in situations when you might feel pressured to do something you don't want to do.
Answer:
1. I will stick to my " no" answer.
Explanation:
Guideliness:
No is no and not yes and so it can't be changed to become yes overnight
What I do not want to do, I do not do.
Pressure cannot make do what I do not want to do.
I say what I mean and mean what I say.
I don't work under respond to to peer pressure.
I don't work under influence.
Why is it a myth that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out? A. Muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue. B. Muscle grows with physical inactivity. C. Fat converts into muscle but not vice versa. D. Only a small amount of muscle turns into fat. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C
Answer:
A or 1Muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue.It is a myth that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out because muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
What is Tissue?Tissue may be defined as a level of organization in multicellular organisms that significantly consists of a group or layer of cells that work together to perform a specific function. This level of organization in multicellular organisms lies after the cells.
According to the context of this question, it is a type of myth among people that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out or prevents physical activity. This basically relies on the fact that muscle and fat are the two distinctive types of tissues that gave to play specific functions within the body of living organisms.
Therefore, it is a myth that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out because muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
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In the U.S., the largest source of funding and guidance for state and local public health programs is provided by?
Answer:
The Federal government and The State government are the largest source of funding and guidance for state and local public health programs.
Explanation:
The Federal government and The State government are the largest source of funding and guidance for state and local public health programs.
In the US, governmental public health agencies are set up to meet and solve the local public health challenges.
The Federal government of the US has the responsibility for creating laws, regulations, policies and expenditure of the resources necessary for the health and safety of the public.
The funds used in financing the health program's are gotten from levies and tax.
During an initial survey in a health care facility, members of The Joint Commission (TJC) find that the facility does not follow regulations for seclusion set by TJC. What will be the possible consequence of this negligence by the health care facility?
Answer:
The possible consequence will be a condition level deficiency certificate for the health care facility.
Explanation:
The Joint Commission (TJC) will survey the health care facility, and after the summary of the survey findings report, they will give the health care facility a condition level deficiency certificate because the facility does not follow the regulations that the TJC has set.
The registered nurse is teaching a nursing student about caring for a client who has difficulty speaking English. Which statement made by the nursing student would cause communication problems with the client?
1 "I will give the client a call bell."2 "I will involve the client's family members as interpreters."3 "I will provide a dictionary to the client if the client can read."4 "I will use boards and pictures to communication with the client."
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Maximizing reimbursement is not permitted because it involves selecting and reporting as principal diagnosis the code that results in the highest level of reimbursement for the facility, whether that diagnosis meets the criteria for selection or not. One aspect of maximizing reimbursement involves
Answer:
One aspect of maximizing reinbursement involves when a patient is admitted as an inpatient at a hospital for the treatment of urosepsis, which is urinary tract infection, UTI. A secondary code has to be assigned to indicate the cause of the infection such as E. coli
Explanation:
Then, the DRG reinbursement rate is approximately $2,300. When an encoder and DRG software grouper are used, the coder may notice that the code for sepsis results in the higher DRG rate of approximately $6, 400. If the code for sepsis is reported as the principal diagnosis, this case would most likely be reviewed by the MAC or the quality improvement organization to verify the accuracy of the reported code.
Final answer:
The discussion focuses on the ethical considerations of coding for reimbursement in health care facilities and contrasts fee-for-service systems with HMOs, addressing the concept of adverse selection in insurance markets and the impact of value-based reimbursement models.
Explanation:
The subject in question pertains to the ethics and practices in coding diagnoses for maximizing reimbursement within health care facilities. In a fee-for-service system, health care providers are reimbursed based on the services performed, but in health maintenance organizations (HMOs), the reimbursement is based on the number of patients. Adverse selection impacts insurance markets by creating a scenario where buyers who are aware of their low risk avoid insurance due to high cost, and high-risk buyers are attracted to it because of perceived benefits. This creates a financial risk for insurance companies. Value-based reimbursement models, such as those used by Medicare, encourage quality care by financially rewarding positive patient outcomes and penalizing hospitals for preventable conditions that occur under their care.
Why is it important to model optimism when working with a client with disabilities?
Answer:
To allow the families to see what their loved one can do.
Explanation:
Model optimism is the mental attitude that reflects the hope that the outcome some endeavor might be desirable, positive and favorable. Optimism see the things positively.
The client that has some disability requires the model optimism. This optimism generates the hope that he might get well soon and generates the positive thinking in the patient. The treatment of the patient with the families and loved one is quite fruitful.
Modelling optimism when working with clients with disabilities is crucial because it fosters a positive environment, improves overall health outcomes, and fosters hope and positivity in the client, potentially increasing their quality of life and satisfaction with treatment.
Explanation:Modelling optimism when working with clients with disabilities is important for several key reasons. Firstly, the positive view and expectations from optimism provide a supportive therapeutic environment. Optimists, defined as those who generally expect good outcomes and view life's difficulties as temporary and not personal faults, tend to have better overall health outcomes. This includes lower rates of rehospitalization, better physical functioning, less pain, and better treatment adherence, functions which could all assist in rehabilitation and treatment processes for disabled clients.
The power of optimism has also been shown to contribute to better overall life satisfaction, resilience, and ability to cope with stress – all of which are important in ensuring the client feels hopeful and positive about their journey.
Finally, demonstrating optimism could help the client to internalize a similar outlook, potentially increasing their perceived quality of life and overall happiness. This can foster a more positive attitude towards treatment and foster productive and pleasurable working relationships.
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1. A 43-year-old man has had a cough and fever for the past 2 months.. A transbronchial lung biopsy is performed, yielding a specimen with the microscopic appearance shows granulomas. Which of the following chemical mediators is most important in the pathogenesis of this lesion? A Bradykinin B Complement C5a C Interferon-v D Nitric oxideE Prostaglandins 34 2. An 8-year-old girl has had difficulty swallowing for the past day. On examination, her pharynx is swollen and erythematous with an overlying yellow exudate. Laboratory studies show neutrophilia. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus) is cultured from her pharynx. Which of the following substances is most likely to increase in response to pyrogens released by this organism? A Hageman factor B Immunoglobulin E C Interleukin-12 (IL-12) D Nitric oxide E Prostaglandins 3. A 41 -year-old man has had a severe headache for the past 2 days. On examination, his temperature is 39.2 0 lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid obtained has a WBC count of 910/ mm3 with 94% neutrophils and 6% lymphocytes. Which of the following substances is the most likely mediator for the fever observed in this man? A Bradykinin B Histamine C Leukotriene B4 D Nitric oxide TNF
Answer:
1. (B) Interferen-V
2.(E)
3.(E)
Explanation:
1.Interferon-V is the most important in the pathogenesis of this lesion because, it promotes the formation of epithelioid cells and giant cells.
2.Immunoglobulin will be increased in response to inflammatory responses with allergins and with invasive parasites.
3.The most likely mediator for the fever is interleukin-1 ( IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor, TNF, which are produced by macrophages and other cell types.
The development of chronic diseases has a connection to poor diet and:________ a) can be completely prevented by eating a good diet. b) will not be affected by lifestyle choices. c) is not affected by genetics. d) can be completely prevented by altering genes. e) can be reduced by food choices along with lifestyle choices.
Answer:
e). can be reduced with food choices along with lifestyle choices
Explanation:
One of the method that can be used to curb chronic diseases through their diet is by Interventions.
Interventions aimed at changing diet and lifestyle factors include educating individuals, changing the environment, modifying the food supply, undertaking community interventions, and implementing economic policies.
What makes a crisis access hospital (CAH) different from an intensive care unit (ICU)?
Answer:
A crisis access hospital provides temporary care while an intensive care unit provides care for a non-limited time.
Explanation:
A crisis access hospital (CAH) provides approximately 96 hours of care, while an intensive care unit (ICU) provides intensive care for a non-limited time. The professionals in the ICU are highly trained, and their patients would not live without their close monitoring and life support machines.
_____ abilities may lead them to question their parents and other authority figures far more strenuously, and may make adolescents impatient with imperfections in institutions such as schools and the government.
Answer:
Abstract reasoning
Explanation:
Adolescents' increased abstract reasoning abilities may lead them to...
That is the full statement.
Abstract reasoning is defined as the ability to analyze information, detect patterns and relationships, and solve problems on a complex, intangible level. Examples of abstract reasoning may be questioning or formulating theories as to why we exist, and debate the existence of a higher power watching over us.
It is at this stage that many adolescents develop their own morals and understandings of the way the world works. They may feel rebellious against their parents or other authoritative figures.
Answer:
The missing part of the question is: Adolescents' increased __________ abilities may...
Adolescents' increased abstract reasoning abilities may lead them to question their parents and other authority figures far more strenuously, and may make adolescents impatient with imperfections in institutions such as schools and the government.
Explanation:
Abstract reasoning is developed during the adolescence and last our entire life. It is the ability to solve problems, analyze and deduce things, without needing concrete objects to do so. For example, the ability to make mental calculations, or start questioning things that you perceive as wrong in an institution such as the school or the government but that are not concrete things like laws, or schemes inside a system.